Dec 18, 2020

14 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC


Question 6131) 

Which is contraindicated for a client with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? 

A. treating the underlying cause 

B. administering heparin 

C. administering warfarin sodium 

D. replacing depleted products 

Answer: C 

Explanation: DIC has not been found to respond to oral anticoagulants such as warfarin sodium. 

Question 6132) 

Which is a finding associated with internal bleeding with disseminated intravascular coagulation? 

A. Bradycardia 

B. Hypertension 

C. Increasing abdominal girth 

D. Petechiae 

Answer: C 

Explanation: As blood collects in the peritoneal cavity, it causes dilation and distention, which is reflected in increased abdominal girth. 

Question 6133) 

A client with neutropenia has an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 900. What is the client's risk of infection? 

A. normal risk 

B. moderate risk 

C. high risk 

D. extremely high risk 

Answer: B 

Explanation: A client is at moderate risk when the ANC is < 1,000. 

Question 6134) 

Twenty-four hours after a bone marrow aspiration, the nurse evaluates which client outcome as an appropriate one? 

A. The client maintains bed rest.

B. There is redness and swelling at the aspiration site. 

C. The client requests a strong analgesic for pain. 

D. There is no bleeding at the aspiration site. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: After a bone marrow aspiration, the puncture site should be checked every 10 to 15 minutes for bleeding. 

Question 6135) 

Which clinical manifestation does the nurse most likely observe in a client with Hodgkin's disease? 

A. difficulty swallowing 

B. painless, enlarged cervical lymph nodes 

C. difficulty breathing 

D. a feeling of fullness over the liver 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Painless and enlarged cervical lymph nodes, tachycardia, weight loss, weakness and fatigue, and night sweats are signs of Hodgkin's disease. 

Question 6136) 

Platelets: 

A. Stick to the damages area of a blood vessel and help to seal the break. 

B. Have a lifespan of About 120 days. 

C. Are the precursors of leukocytes 

D. Have multiple nuclei 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Stick to the damage area of a blood vessel and help to seal the break. 

Question 6137) 

Fred's blood type was determined to be AB+. Which of the following is true of Fred's blood? 

A. There are no antibodies to antigens A,B or Rh is the plasma 

B. The RBSs contain the A and B antigens on their nuclei 

C. The blood totally lacks the Rh factor. 

D. He cannot receive blood from someone who is type O negative. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: There are no antibodies A,B or Rh is the plasma. 

Question 6138) 

Anemia is: 

A. Any condition in which the body has an abnormally low oxygen carrying capacity. 

B. Only a genetic disorder. 

C. Marked by a massive increase in blood viscosity 

D. Never the result of nutrient deficiency. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Any condition in which the bodies has an abnormally low oxygen carrying capacity. 

Question 6139) 

To enter or leave an cell, substances most pass through : 

A. Microtubule 

B. The Golgi apparatus 

C. A ribosome 

D. The plasma membrane 

Answer: D 

Explanation: To enter or leave the cell, the substance must pass through the cell membranes bcoz cell wall is freely permeable and so it allows any substances to enter the cell. And on the other hand,cell membrane is selectively permeable, so it allows only selective substances to enter the cell. 

Question 6140) 

During blood donation, the removal of blood components is called: 

A. Cytophresis 

B. Plasmaphresis 

C. Aphresis 

D. Leukapheresis 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Apheresis definition is - withdrawal of blood from a donor's body, removal of one or more blood components (such as plasma, platelets or white blood cells) and transfusion of the remaining blood back into the donor - called also pheresis.


 

13 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 


Question 6121) 

The nurse is administering packed blood cells to a client. The nurse should first: 

A. discontinue the IV catheter if a blood transfusion reaction occurs. 

B. administer the PRBCs through a percutaneously inserted central catheter line with a 20 - gauge needle. 

C. flush PRBCs with 5% dextrose and 0.45% normal saline solution. 

D. stay with the client during the first 15 minutes of infusion. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The most likely time for a blood transfusion reaction to occur is during the first 15 minutes or first 50 mL of the infusion. 

Question 6122) The nurse is teaching a client and his family about the client's new diagnosis of hemochromatosis. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching plan? 

A. Hemochromatosis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the HEF gene. 

B. Individuals who are heterozygous of hemochromatosis rarely develop the disease. 

C. Individuals who are homozygous for hemochromatosis are carriers of hemochromatosis. 

D. Men are at greater risk for hemochromatosis. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The nurse should teach the client and family that individuals who are heterozygous for hemochromatosis rarely develop the disease. 

Question 6123) 

A client who had received 25 mL of packed red blood cells how low back pain and pruritus. After stopping the infusion, the nurse should take what action next? 

A. Administer prescribed antihistamine and an antipyretic. 

B. Collect blood and urine samples and send to the lab. 

C. Administer prescribed diuretics. 

D. Administer prescribed vasopressors. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: ABO and Rh-incompatible blood causes an antigen-antibody reaction that produces hemolysis or agglutination of red blood cells. 

Question 6124) 

A client is to receive epoetin injections. What laboratory value should the nurse assess before giving the injection? 

A. Hematocrit 

B. Partial thromboplastin time 

C. Hemoglobin concentration 

D. Prothrombin time 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Epoetin is a recombinant DNA form of erythropoietin, which stimulates the production of red blood cells and therefore causes the hematocrit to rise. 

Question 6125) 

A client is afraid of receiving vitamin B12 injections because of potential toxic reactions. Which is the nurse's best response to relieve these fears? 

A. Vitamin B12 will cause ringing in the ears before a toxic level is reached. 

B. Vitamin B12 may cause a very mild rash initially. 

C. Vitamin B12 cause mild nausea but nothing toxic. 

D. Vitamin B12 is generally free to toxicity because it is water soluble. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Vitamin B12 is a water soluble vitamin. When water soluble vitamins are taken in excess of the body needs, they are filtered through kidneys and excreted vit. B12 is considered be nontoxic. 

Question 6126) 

A client with macrocytic anemia has a burn on the foot and reports watching television while lying on a heating pad. Which action should be the nurse's first response? 

A. Assess for potential abuse. 

B. Check for diminished sensations. 

C. Document the findings. 

D. Clean and dress the area. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Macrocytic anemias can result from deficiencies in vitamin B12 deficiency causes diminished sensations of peripheral nerve endings. 

Question 6127) 

Which is a late symptom of polycythaemia vera? 

A. headache 

B. dizziness 

C. pruritus 

D. Shortness of breath 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Pruritus is a late symptom that results from abnormal histamine metabolism. 

Question 6128) 

A 25 year old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus was admitted with a severe viral respiratory tract infection and diffuse petechiae. Based on these data, it is most important that the nurse further evaluate the client's recent: 

A. quality and quantity of food intake. 

B. type and amount of fluid intake. 

C. extent of weakness and fatigue. 

D. length and amount of menstrual flow. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: A recent viral infection in a female client between the age of 20 and 30 with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus and an insidious onset of diffuse petechiae are hallmarks of idiopathic onset of diffuse petechiae purpura. 

Question 6129) 

When a client with thrombocytopenia has a severe headache, what does the nurse interpret that this may indicate? 

A. stress of the disease 

B. cerebral bleeding 

C. migraine headache 

D. sinus congestion 

Answer: B 

Explanation: When the platelet count is very low, red blood cells leak out of the blood vessels and into the tissue. 

Question 6130) 

A client's bone marrow report reveals normal stem cells and precursors of platelets (megakaryocytes) in the presence of decreased circulating platelets. The nurse recognizes a knowledge deficit when the client says: 

A. I need to stop flossing and throw away my hard toothbrush. 

B. I am glad that my report turned out normal. 

C. Now I know why I have all these bruises. 

D. I should not jump off that last step anymore. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The client who states that the test results are normal has only heard that the bone marrow is functioning. 

12 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 



Question 6111) 

A client had a resection of the terminal ileum 3 years ago. While obtaining a health history and physical assessment, the nurse finds that the client has weakness, shortness of breath and a sore tongue. Which additional information from the client indicates a need for client teaching? 

A. I have been drinking plenty of fluids. 

B. I have been gargling with warm salt water for my sore tongue. 

C. I have regular bowel movements on most days. 

D. I take a vitamin B12 tablet every day. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Vitamin B12 combines with intrinsic factor in the stomach and is then carried to the ileum, where it is absorbed into the bloodstream. 

Question 6112) 

A client who follows a vegetarian diet was referred to a dietician for nutritional counselling for anemia. Which client outcome indicates that the client does not understand nutritional counselling? The client: 

A. adds dried fruit to cereal and baked goods. 

B. cooks tomato-based foods in iron pots. 

C. drinks coffee or tea with meals. 

D. adds vitamin C to all meals. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Coffee and tea increase gastrointestinal motility and inhibit the absorption of nonheme iron. 

Question 6113) 

A client was admitted to the hospital with iron deficiency anemia and blood streaked emesis. Which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask in determining the extent of the client's activity intolerance? 

A. What daily activities were you able to do 6 months ago compared with the present? 

B. How long have you had this problem? 

C. Have you been able to keep up with all your usual activities? 

D. Are you more tired now than you used to be? 

Answer: A 

Explanation: It is difficult to determine activity intolerance without objectively comparing activities from one-time frame to another. 

Question 6114) 

Which position would most help to decrease a client's discomfort when the client's spouse injects vitamin B12 using the ventrogluteal site? 

A. Lying on the side with legs extended 

B. Lying on the abdomen with toes pointed inward 

C. Learning over the edge of a low table with hips flexed 

D. standing upright with the feet one shoulder-width apart 

Answer: B 

Explanation: To promote comfort when injecting at the ventrogluteal site, the position of choice is with the client lying on the abdomen with toes pointed inward. 

Question 6115) 

A client has fatigue, temperature of 99.5 degree F, dark bronze skin, and dark urine. Hemoglobin is 9 g/dL, hematocrit is 49 and red blood cells are 2.75 million/uL. What should the nurse do first? 

A. Initiate an intake and output record. 

B. Place the client on bed rest. 

C. Place the client on contact isolation. 

D. Keep the client out of sunlight. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The nurse should prepare to start an intake and output record because the client is exhibiting clinical manifestations of anemia with jaundice and is demonstrating a fluid imbalance. 

Question 6116) 

When a client is receiving a cephalosporin, the nurse must monitor the client for which finding? 

A. Drug-induced haemolytic anemia 

B. Purpura 

C. Infectious emboli 

D. Ecchymosis 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Drug-induced hemolytic anemia is acquired,antibody-mediated, RBC destruction precipitated by medications, such as cephalosporins, sulfa drugs, rifampin, methyldopa, procainamide, quinidine, and thiazides. 

Question 6117) 

A client is to have a Schilling's test. The nurse should: 

A. administer methylcellulose. 

B. start a 24 to 48 hour urine specimen collection. 

C. maintain nothing by mouth status. 

D. start a 72 hour stool specimen collection. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Urinary vitamin B12 levels are measured after the ingestion of radioactive vitamin B12. 

Question 6118) 

A client with pernicious anemia is receiving vitamin B12. The nurse should evaluate the client for which expected outcomes of vitamin B12? 

A. increased energy 

B. healed tongue and lips 

C. absence of paresthesias 

D. improved clotting time 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of vitamin B12, primary symptoms including neuropathy with paresthesias of hands and feet. 

Question 6119) 

The nurse is assessing a client's activity tolerance. Which report from a treadmill test indicates an abnormal response? 

A. pulse rate increased by 20 bpm immediately after the activity 

B. respiratory rate decreased by 5 breaths/min 

C. diastolic blood pressure increased by 7 mm Hg. 

D. pulse rate within 6 bpm of resting pulse after 3 minutes of rest 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The normal physiologic response to activity is an increased metabolic rate over the resting basal rate. 

Question 6120) 

In a postoperative client, the hematocrit decreased from 36% to 34% on the 3rd day even though the red blood cell (RBC) count and hemoglobin, value remained stable at 4.5 million/uL and 11.9 g/dL, respectively. The nurse should next: 

A. check the dressing and drains for frank bleeding. 

B. call the healthcare provider. 

C. continue to monitor vital signs. 

D. start oxygen at 2 L/min per nasal cannula. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The nurse should continue to monitor the client because this value reflects a normal physiologic response. 

11 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 


Question 6101) 

A client who is weak, dyspneic and jaundiced has a bilirubin level greater than 2 mg/100 mL blood volume. With which problem are these clinical findings consistent? 

A. Hemolytic anemia 

B. Pernicious anemia 

C. Decreased rate of red blood cell destruction 

D. Low oxygen carrying capacity of erythrocytes 

Answer: A 

Explanation: An elevated plasma bilirubin level could indicate an increased rate of RBC destruction (bilirubin is a product of free hemoglobin metabolism): the individual may have a hemolytic anemia (e.g. thalassemia major [Cooley anemia], glucose-6-phosphate). 

Question 6102) 

Packed red blood cells have been prescribed for a female client with a hemoglobin level of 7.6 g/dL and a hematocrit level of 30%. The nurse takes the client's temperature before hanging the blood transfusion and records orally. Which action should the nurse takes: 

A. Begin the transfusion as prescribed 

B. Administer an antihistamine and begin the transfusion. 

C. Delay hanging the blood and notify the health care provider. 

D. Administer 2 tablets of acetaminophen and begin the transfusion. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The client has a temperature higher than 100 degree F, the unit of blood should not be hung until the HCP is notified and has the opportunity to give further prescriptions. The HCP likely will prescribe that the blood be administered regardless of the temperature, or may instruct the nurse to administer prescribed acetaminophen and wait until the temperature has decreased before administration, but the decision is not within the nurse's scope of practice to make. The nurse needs an HCP's prescription to administer medications to the client. 

Question 6103) 

The nurse determines that a client is having a transfusion reaction. After the nurse stops the transfusion, which action should be taken next? 

A. Remove the intravenous line. 

B. Run a solution of 5% dextrose in water. 

C. Run normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate. 

D. Obtain a culture of the tip of the catheter device removed from the client. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: If the nurse suspects a transfusion reaction, the nurse stops the transfusion and infuses normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate pending further health care provider prescriptions. This maintains a patent IV access line and aids in maintaining the client's intravascular volume. The nurse would not remove the IV line because then there would be no IV access route. Obtaining a culture of the tip of the catheter device removed from the client is incorrect. First, the catheter should not be removed. Second, cultures are performed when infection not transfusion reaction, is suspected. Normal saline is the solution of choice over solutions containing dextrose because saline does not cause red blood cells to clump. 

Question 6104) 

Client has a prescription to receive a unit of packed red blood cells. The nurse should obtain which intravenous solution from the IV storage area to hang with the blood product at the client's bedside? 

A. Lactated Ringer's 

B. O.9% sodium chloride 

C. 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride 

D. 5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Sodium chloride 0.9% (normal saline) is a standard isotonic solution used to precede and follow infusion of blood products. Dextrose is not used because it could result in clumping and subsequent hemolysis of red blood cells (RBCs). Lactated Ringer's is not the solution of choice with this procedure. 

Question 6105) 

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a blood transfusion and is complaining of a cough. The nurse checks the client's vital sings, which include temperature of 97.2 degree F, pulse of 108 beats per minute, blood pressure of 152/76 mm Hg, respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute and an oxygen saturation level of 95% on room air. The client denies pain at this time. Based on this information, what initial action should the nurse take? 

A. Collect a urine sample for analysis. 

B. Place the client in an upright position. 

C. Compare current data to baseline data. 

D. Slow the rate of the blood transfusion. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: For the client receiving a blood transfusion, the nurse should monitor for potential complications of a transfusion. One of the complications is circulatory overload. Signs and symptoms of circulatory overload include cough, dyspnea, chest pain, wheezing on auscultation of the lungs, headache, hypertension,tachycardia and a bounding pulse, and distended neck veins. Based on the data in the question, the nurse should compare current data to baseline data. The nurse should also further assess the client for other signs and symptoms of circulatory overload. If the nurse still suspects this complication after comparing to baseline data, the nurse should then place the client in an upright position with the feet in a dependent position and slow the rate of the infusion. Collection of a urine sample should occur if the nurse suspects a transfusion reaction, such as a hemolytic reaction. 

Question 6106) 

A client with severe blood loss resulting from multiple trauma requires rapid transfusion of several units of blood. The nurse asks another health team member to obtain which device for use during the transfusion procedure to help reduce the risk of cardiac dysrhythmias? 

A. Infusion pump 

B. Pulse oximeter 

C. Cardiac monitor 

D. Blood-warming device 

Answer: D 

Explanation: If several units of blood are to be administered rapidly a blood warmer should be used. Rapid transfusion of cool blood places the client at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. To prevent this, the nurse warms the blood with a blood-warming device. Pulse oximetry and cardiac monitoring equipment are useful for the early assessment of complications but do not reduce the occurrence of cardiac dysrhythmias. Electronic infusion devices are not helpful in this case because the infusion must be rapid and infusion devices generally are used to control the flow rate. In addition, not all infusion devices are made to handle blood or blood products. 

Question 6107) 

A client had a mastectomy followed by chemotherapy 6 months ago. She reports that she is now "unable to concentrate at her card game" and "it seems harder and harder to finish her errands because of exhaustion." Based on this information, the nurse should suggest that the client: 

A. take frequent naps. 

B. limit activities. 

C. increase fluid intake. 

D. avoid contact with others.

 Answer: A 

Explanation: The client is likely experiencing fatigue and should increase her periods of rest. 

Question 6108) 

The nurse has just admitted a 35 year old female client who has a serum vitamin B12 concentration of 800 pg/mL. Which laboratory findings should alert the nurse to focus the health history to obtain specific information about drug or alcohol use? 

A. total bilirupbin, 0.3 mg/dL (5.1 umol/L) 

B. serum creatinine 0.5 mg/dL (44.2 umol/L) 

C. hemoglobin 16 g/dL (160 g/L) 

D. folate 1.5 ng/mL (3.4 nmol/L) 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Normal range of folic acid is 1.8 to 9 ng/mL. (4.1 to 20.4 nmol/L) and normal range of vitamin B12 is 200 to 900 pg/mL (147.6 to 664 pmol/L). 

Question 6109) 

Which lab values should the nurse report to the healthcare provider when the client has anemia? 

A. Schilling test result, elevated 

B. intrinsic factor, absent 

C. sedimentation rate , 16 mm/h 

D. red blood cells (RBCs) within normal range 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The defining characteristic of pernicious anemia, a megaloblastic anemia, is lack of the intrinsic factor, which results from atrophy of the stomach wall. 

Question 6110) 

The nurse is developing a teaching plan for the client with aplastic anemia. Which is most important to include the plan? 

A. Eat animal protein and dark green leafy vegetables every day. 

B. Avoid exposure to others with acute infections. 

C. Practice yoga and medication to decrease stress and anxiety. 

D. Get 8 hours of sleep at night and take naps during the day. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Clients with aplastic anemia are severely immunocompromised and at risk for infection and possible death related to bone marrow suppression and pancytopenia

10 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC - COVID

 



Question 6091) 

What does the 19 in Covid-19 stand for? 

A. It refers to the 19 molecules that make up the virus 

B. It is the 19th coronavirus identified since the WHO began naming them 

C. It is the year the virus was first encountered: 2019

D. It is the number of spikes protein of this coronavirus 

Answer: C 

Explanation: COVID-19 is the acronym for the full name coronavirus disease of 2019. The 19 is the designation of when the virus was identified. On December 31, 2019, a strange new pneumonia of unknown cause was reported to the Chinese WHO Country Office. A cluster of these cases originally appeared in Wuhan, a city in the Hubei Province of China. These infections were found to be caused by a new coronavirus which was given the name “2019 novel coronavirus” (2019-nCoV). It was later renamed “severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2,” or SARS-CoV-2 by the International Committee on Taxonomy of Viruses on February 11, 2020. It was named SARSCoV-2 because the virus is a genetic cousin of the coronavirus which caused the SARS outbreak in 2002 (SARS-CoV). 

Question 6092)

The nurse assessing the results of a Rinne test sees the notation of BC >AC. The nurse translates this to mean that the patient has:__________ 

A. Conductive hearing loss 

B. Sensorineural hearing loss 

C. Normal hearing 

D. Cochlear defect 

Answer: A 

Explanation: When the bone conduction (BC) is greater than the air conduction (AC), the results of the Rinne test will read, BC>AC, which means the patient has a conductive hearing loss. The normal finding for the Rinne test is that AC is greater than BC (AC>BC). 

Question 6093) 

What type of hearing loss is associated with otosclerosis? 

A. Sensorineural 

B. Conductive 

C. Permanent 

D. Temporary 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Otosclerosis usually causes a CONDUCTIVE hearing loss, a hearing loss caused by a problem in the outer or middle ear. Less frequently, otosclerosis may cause a sensorineural hearing loss Otosclerosis is the overgrowth of spongy bone in the middle ear that doesn't allow the bones of the middle ear to vibrate. Stapedectomy is the corrective surgery. 

Question 6094) 

A nurse is familiar with common neurotransmitters. He knows that levels fluctuate with certain diseases. Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT associated with depression?

A. Serotonin 

B. Dopamine 

C. Melatonin 

D. Norepinephrine 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Depression has been linked to problems or imbalances in the brain, specifically with the neurotransmitters serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine. Acetylcholine levels will increase when the client experiences depression. The three neurotransmitters implicated in depression are: Norepinephrine Serotonin Dopamine 

Question 6095) 

A nurse is able to handle multiple patients, yet seems to meet patient needs automatically. Others remark that the nurse's expertise comes naturally. The nurse manager determines this nurse is at which stage of Benner's Stage of Nursing Proficiency? 

A. Novice 

B. Advanced Beginner 

C. Competent 

D. Expert 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Additional notes: Patricia Benner - Novice 1. Beginner with no experience 2. Taught general rules to help perform tasks 3. Rules are context free, independent of specific cases, and applied universally 4. Rulegoverned behavior is limited and flexible 5. "Tell me what I need to do and I'll do it." Patricia Benner - Advanced Beginner 1. Demonstrates acceptable performance 2. Has gained prior experience in actual situations to recognize recurring meaningful components 3. Principles, based on experiences, begin to be formulated to guide actions Patricia Benner - Competent 1. Typically a nurse with 2-3 years experience on the job in the same area or in similar day to say situations 2. More aware of long-term goals 3. Gains perspective from planning actions based on conscious, abstract, analytical thinking and helps to achieve greater efficiency and organization Patricia Benner - Proficient 1. Perceives and understands situation as whole parts 2. More holistic understanding improves decision making 3. Learns experiences from what to expect in certain situations and how to modify plans Patricia Benner - Expert 1. No longer relies on principles, rules, or guidelines to connect situations and determine actions 2. Much more background of experience 3. Has intuitive grasp of clinical situations 4. Performance is now fluid, flexible, and highly-proficient 

Question 6096) 

To inflate the cuff of an endotracheal tube (ET) when the patient is on mechanical ventilation, the cuff pressure should be maintained at_______mmHg 

A. 10-30 

B. 20- 25 

C. 40 

D. 60 

Answer: B 

Explanation: 25-35 cm H2O and or 20-25 mmHg The volume to inflate the cuff varies with the ET and the patient's size. Cuff pressure should be maintained at 20 to 25 mm Hg. #INTEGRATED 20. A nurse pulls the curtains before changing the dressing of the surgical wound on the abdomen of a post-surgical client. What value is served? A. Dignity B. Freedom C. Altruism D. Accountability Answer: A The nurse values the dignity of the client and provides the client with privacy before changing the wound dressing. This incident does not serve the values of accountability, freedom, or altruism. A nurse values accountability when documenting nursing care accurately and honestly. The nurse values freedom when the client's right to refuse treatment is honored. The nurse shows value for altruism when showing concern for the client's welfare. 87 

Question 6097) 

A client has just been intubated for placement on a mechanical ventilator. What is the first assessment of the tube placement? 

A. Chest X-Ray 

B. Auscultation of breath sounds 

C. Pulse oximetry reading of 95% 

D. End tidal CO2 monitoring 

Answer: D 

Explanation: End-tidal CO2 monitors are currently recommended for rapid verification of ET placement. Auscultation for bilateral breath sounds and checking chest expansion also are used, but they are not as accurate as end-tidal CO2 monitoring. A chest x-ray confirms the placement but is done after the tube is secured. 


Question 6098) 

A balut vendor entered the gate of family Consuelo without notifying them. The dog bit the balut vendor. What is the MOST commonly affected site in the body of the balut vendor for rhabdo virus ? 

A. Hand 

B. Buttock 

C. Head 

D. Hands 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Head is the MOST targeted part of the Rhabdovirus. From the point of entry (usually a bite), the rabies virus travels along nerves to the spinal cord and then to the brain, where it multiplies. Once rabies attacks the central nervous system, it causes encephalitis (brain swelling). Inflammation surrounding brain blood vessels is often seen. Areas of the brain frequently targeted by the rabies virus are the hippocampus, limbic areas, medulla and cerebellum What is the cause of death in a patient positioned as depicted in the image below, who died during a prolonged rectal surgery? A. Positional asphyxia B. Traumatic asphyxia C. Aspiration of GI contents D. Smothering 

Question 6099) 

A nurse administer 2 units of packed RBCs (250 mL each) followed by 500 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride. How much total solution (blood and sodium chloride) has infused? A. 1000 ml B. 800 ml C. 600 ml D. 700 ml Answer: A Explanation: 1000 ml. Each bag of packed RBCs contains 250ml. for a total of 500 ml. of packed RBCs. The total amount of sodium chloride received is 500 ml. 500 + 500 = 1000 ml. of solution. Question 6100) A client is admitted with a higher than expected red blood cell count. What physiological alteration does the nurse will result from this clinical finding ? 

A. Increased serum pH 

B. Decreased hematocrit 

C. Increased blood viscosity 

D. Decreased immune response 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Viscosity, a measure of fluid internal resistance to flow, is increased as the number of red cells suspended in plasma increases.

9 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 




Question 6081) 

When planning emergent care for a patient with a suspected MI, what should the nurse anticipate administering ? 

A. Oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin and morphine 

B. Oxygen, furosemide (lasix), nitroglycerin and meperidine 

C. Aspirin, nitroprusside (Nipride), dopamine (intropin), and oxygen 

D. Nitroglycerin, lorazepam (Ativan), oxygen and warfarin (Coumadin) 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Oxygen,nitroglycerin, aspirin and morphine. The American Heart Association's guidelines for emergency care of the patient with chest pain include the administration of oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin and morphine. These interventions serve to relieve chest pain, improve oxygenation, decrease myocardial workload and prevent further platelet aggregation. The other medications my be used later in the patient's treatment. 

Question 6082) 

One week after being hospitalized for an acute myocardial infarction, a patient reports loss of appetite and feeling nauseated which of the following prescribed medication next dose should be withheld? 

A. Digoxin 

B. Furosemide 

C. Propranolol 

D. Spironolactone 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Opioids decrease peristalsis, which may precipitate constipation, straining at stool should be avoided to prevent the Valsalva maneuver, which increases demands on the heart. 

Question 6083) 

The patient with CHF is placed in a High Fowler's position. What is the rationale for placing the patient in this position? 

A. To increase the volume of blood returning to heart 

B. To increase cardiac output and stroke volume 

C. To reduce the volume of blood returning to heart 

D. To reduce ankle edema and prevent dysrhythmia 

Answer: C 

Explanation: To reduce the volume of blood returning to heart 

Question 6084) 

Which among the following clinical indicator is most likely to be assessed when taking the admission history of a patient with right ventricular failure? 

A. Dyspnea 

B. Vertigo 

C. Polyuria 

D. Palpitation 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Dyspnea due to heart failure from other causes of dyspnea. If myocardial infarction is suspected, various cardiac markers may be used. BNP is a better indicator than N-terminal pro-BNP (NTproBNP) for the diagnosis of symptomatic heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction. 

Question 6085) 

Which of the following symptoms is most commonly associated with lift sided heart failure? 

A. Crackles 

B. Arrhythmias 

C. Hepatic engorgement 

D. Hypotension 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Pulmonary edema may cause crackling sounds in your lungs. People with congestive heart failure (CHF) often have pulmonary edema. CHF occurs when the heart cannot pump blood effectively. 

Question 6086) 

The inability of the left ventricle to fill or pump sufficient blood to meet the needs of the tissues for oxygen and nutrients is: 

A. Decompensated heart failure 

B. Congestive heart failure 

C. Left ventricular failure 

D. Right ventricular failure 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Left-sided heart failure (left ventricular failure): inability of the left ventricle to fill or pump sufficient blood to meet the needs of the tissues for oxygen and nutrients, traditional term used to describe patient's symptoms of heart failure 

Question 6087) 

What is MOST effective at removing the corona virus from your hands

 A. Alcohol-based hand sanitiser 

B. Soap and water 

C. Sodium Hypochlorite 

D. Chlorhexitidine 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Soap and water Soap loosens the lipids in the virus membrane, causing its structure to collapse and making the virus inactive. Alcohol-based hand sanitiser is still useful for removing the virus if soap and warm water is unavailable, but it is not as effective 

Question 6088) 

The nurse says, "If you do not let me do this dressing change, I will not let you eat dinner with the other residents in the dining room." What legal term is related to this statement? 

A. Battery 

B. Assault 

C. Negligence 

D. Malpractice 

Answer: B 

Explanation: This statement is an unjust threat. Assault is the threat to harm another person without cause 

Question 6089) 

A patient who is receiving mechanical ventilation is anxious and is "fighting" the ventilator. Which action should the nurse take FIRST? 

A. Ventilate the patient with a manual resuscitation bag. 

B. erbally coach the patient to breathe with the ventilator. 

C. Sedate the patient with the ordered PRN lorazepam (Ativan). 

D. Increase the rate for the ordered propofol (Diprivan) infusion. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The initial response by the nurse should be to try to decrease the patient's anxiety by coaching the patient about how to coordinate respirations with the ventilator. The other actions also may be helpful if the verbal coaching is ineffective in reducing the patient's anxiety. 

Question 6090) 

With which placental anomaly is the placenta deeply attached to the uterus? 

A. Battledore placenta 

B. Placenta succenturiata 

C. lacenta accreta 

D. Placenta circumvallata 

Answer: C 

Explanation: A --- battledore placenta occurs when cord inserts at the placental margin instead of centrally B---- Placenta Sucenturiata is a Placenta w/ 1 or more accessory lobes connected to the main placenta via blood vessels (Causes uterine bleeding due to retentions) D----Placenta Circumvallata, the Placenta's fetal side is partially covered w/chorion --> Making delivery a little difficult Abnormal Attachment of the Placenta to the uterus 1. Accreta: "Against the myometrium" 2. Increta: "Into the myometrium" 3. Percreta: "Perforates out into the serosa" .. and can attach to the bladder What is the presentation of placenta accreta? A woman who has a normal 1st and 2nd stage of labor but the placenta does not deliver. The woman usually has C-section or myomectomy, creating a uterine scar where the placenta implanted. What are the risk factors for placenta accreta? - prior C section - CURRENT (not necessarily prior) placenta previa - prior myomectomy - fetal Down syndrome - advanced maternal age Which placental position, posterior or anterior, is associated with a greater risk of placenta accreta? Anterior placenta = greater risk of accreta Mnemonic: "A" is for "Accreta" Does numerous C-sections increase the risk of accreta, or is your risk stable following the first C-section onward? It increases with every C-section

8 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 



Question 6071) 

ECG change in myocardial infarction is: 

A. ST segment elevation 

B. Wide QRS complex 

C. Presence of U wave 

D. Prolonged PR interval 

Answer: A 

Explanation: ECG changes in myocardial infarction. In the first few hours the T waves become abnormally tall and the ST segments begin to rise. In the first 24 hours the T wave will become inverted, as the ST elevation begins to resolve. Pathological Q waves may appear within hours or may take greater than 24 hour. 

Question 6072) 

The nurse is administering a calcium channel blocker to the client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction. Which assessment data would cause the nurse to question administering this medication? 

A. The client's apical pulse is 64 

B. The client's calcium level is elevated 

C. The client's telemetry shows occasional PVC's 

D. The client's blood pressure is 90/62 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The client's blood pressure is low, and a calcium channel blocker could cause the blood pressure to bottom out. 

Question 6073) 

In acute myocardial infarction which enzyme is raised first? 

A. CPK-MB 

B. SGPT 

C. SGOT 

D. Troponin - T 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Myocardial muscle creatine kinase (CK-MB) is found mainly in the heart. -> CK-MB levels increase within 3-12 hours of onset of chest pain, reach peak values within 24 hours, and return to baseline after 48-72 hours. -> Sensitivity and specificity are not as high as for troponin levels. 

Question 6074) 

The enzyme level which is found elevated after myocardial infarction is : 

A. Serum creatine 

B. Alkaline phosphatase 

C. Phosphokinase 

D. Creatine kinase 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Myocardial muscle creatine kinase (CK-MB) is found mainly in the heart.CK-MB levels increase within 3- 12 hours of onset of chest pain, reach peak values within 24 hours, and return to baseline after 48-72 hours. Sensitivity and specificity are not as high as for troponin levels. 

Question 6075) 

The procedure that has to be performed in order to shift the high pressure from the right ventricle to the left ventricle in Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA) is: 

A. Rashkind Procedure 

B. Rastelli Procedure 

C. Pulmonary Artery Banding 

D. Jatene Procedure 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The Jatene procedure,arterial switch operation or arterial switch, is an open-heart surgical procedure used to correct dextro-transposition of the great arteries (d-TGA). 

Question 6076) 

Along with persistent, crushing chest pain, which signs/symptoms would make the nurse suspect that the client is experiencing a myocardial infarction? 

A. Mid-epigastric pain and pyrosis 

B. Diaphoresis and cool clammy skin 

C. Intermittent claudication and pallor 

D. Jugular vein distention and dependent edema 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Diaphoresis is a systemic reaction to the MI. The body vasoconstricts to shunt blood from the periphery to the trunk of the body this in turn leads to cold,clammy skin. 

Question 6077) 

The lack of oxygen supply to myocardium of heart leads to 

A. Fibrillation 

B. Heart failure 

C. Angina 

D. Infarction 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Angina pectoris is the medical term used to describe chest pains related to heart disease, particularly due to myocardial ischemia. The lack of adequate oxygen (ischemia) in the heart muscles (myocardium) due to a reduced blood supply brought about by disease produces symptoms of: -> Chest tightness, discomfort or heaviness. -> Squeezing, constricting or crushing pains behind the breastbone or sternum -> Prickling, stabbing or burning chest pain -> Choking sensation 

Question 6078) 

Blood pressure in the systemic circulation is highest in the: 

A. Arterioles 

B. Capillaries. 

C. Aorta 

D. Venules 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Blood pressure is the highest in the aorta as the blood is being ejected out of the left ventricle into the aorta. The pressure declines as the blood flows through the arteries, capillaries, arterioles, veins, capillaries and venules. The force of the contraction of the heart and resistance of vessels influence flow, however it is the pressure differences that control blood flow. 

Question 6079) 

Which of the following classes of medication maximizes cardiac performance in client with heart failure by increasing ventricular contractility? 

A. Beta-adrenergic blockers 

B. Diuretics 

C. Calcium channel blockers 

D. Inotropic agents 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Inotropic agents, drugs that increase the force of contraction of cardiac muscle.(for example, digitalis glycosides, amrinone, and epinephrine) 

Question 6080) 

The client admitted with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) asks the nurse why her legs hurt when she walks. The nurse bases a response on the knowledge that the main characteristic of PVD is: 

A. Decreased blood flow 

B. Increased blood flow 

C. Slow blood flow. 

D. Thrombus formation. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Decreased blood flow is a common characteristic of all PVD. When the demand for oxygen to the working muscles becomes greater than the supply, pain is the outcome. Slow blood flow throughout the circulatory system may suggest pump failure. Thrombus formation can result from stasis or damage to the intima of the vessels. 

7 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 

Question 6061)

The nurse in the postpartum unit is caring for a client who has just delivered a newborn infant following a pregnancy with placenta previa. The nurse reviews the plan of care and prepares to monitor the client for which risk associated with placenta previa? 

A. Infection 

B. Hemorrhage 

C. Chronic hypertension 

D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

Answer: B 

Explanation: In placenta previa, the placenta is implanted in the lower uterine segment. The lower uterine segment does not contain the same intertwining musculature as the fundus of the uterus, and this site is more prone to bleeding. 

Question 6062) 

The nurse in a labor room is preparing to care for a client with hypertonic uterine contractions. The nurse is told that the client is experiencing uncoordinated contractions that are erratic an their frequency, duration and intensity. What is the priority nursing action? 

A. Provide pain relief measures. 

B. Prepare the client for an amniotomy. 

C. Promote ambulation every 30 minutes. 

D. Monitor the oxytocin infusion closely. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Hypertonic uterine contractions are painful, occur frequently and are uncoordinated. Management of hypertonic labor depends on the cause. Relief of pain is the primary intervention to promote a normal labor pattern. An amniotomy and oxytocin infusion are not treatment measures for hypertonic contractions, however, these treatments may be used in clients with hypertonic dysfunction. A client with hypertonic uterine contraction would not be encouraged to ambulate every 30 minutes but would be encouraged to rest. 

Question 6063) 

Pregnant client tells the clinic nurse that she wants to know the sex of her baby as soon as it can be determined. The nurse informs the client that she should be able to find out the sex at 12 weeks gestation because of which factor? 

A. The appearance of the fetal external genitalia 

B. The beginning of differentiation in the fetal groin 

C. The fetal testes are descended into the scrotal sac 

D. The internal differences in males and females become apparent 

Answer: A 

Explanation: By the end of the twelfth week, the external genitalia of the fetus have developed to such a degree that the sex of the fetus can be determined visually. Differentiation of the external genitalia occurs at the end of the ninth week. Testes descend into the scrotal sac at the end of the thirty-eight week. Internal differences in the male and female occur at the end of the seventh week. 

Question 6064) 

A couple comes to the family planning clinic and asks about sterilization procedures. Which question by the nurse should determine whether this method of family planning would be most appropriate? 

A. "Did you ever had surgery?" 

B. "Do you plan to have any other children?" 

C. "Do either of you have diabetes mellitus?" 

D. "Do either of you have problems with high blood pressure?" 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Sterilization is a method of contraception for couples who have completed their families. It should be considered a permanent end to fertility because reversal surgery is not always successful. The nurse would ask the couple about their plans for having children in the future. 

Question 6065) 

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with a suspected diagnosis of cataract. Which clinical manifestation is NOT observed in cataract? 

A. Decrease color perception 

B. Blurred vision 

C. Dizziness 

D. Opaque 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Cataract Vision starts as slightly blurred vision an decreased color perception (pt may think contacts or glasses dirty); then blurred and double vision occur and may have difficulty with ADLs; can progress to blindness w/o surgery; no pain or eye redness is associated with age-related cataracts The eye becomes progressively opaque (not transparent) -> resulting in blurred vision - Progressive opacity of the crystalline lens - It is loss of transparency of the lens -> causes decreased transmission of light to retina - Usually not treated until there is visual loss that interferes with ADLs - Occurs in patients > 50 years old Signs & Symptoms of Cataract - Painless - Progressive -- in early stages vision is minimally distorted -- there is gradual decrease in visual acuity - Hazy vision - b/c of light scattering - cloudy vision - b/c of light scattering - Blurry, blurred vision - b/cof light scattering - Decrease in color perception - Decrease in night vision -- pts who drive at night may notice cataracts more - Pt ll see glare from lights - specially from other cars' headlights when driving at night - Photophobia = sensitivity to light, light can cause headache - Decrease in depth perception - On eye exam you will see pt's pupils change colors -- Pupils goes from Cloudy -> Yellow -> Grey -> Milky White --Once pupils are milky white - it is mature cataract - Opthalmoscope - will show the opacity -- may not be able to see retina - due to the opacity - Once the cataracts are mature & interferes with ADLs - it is treated with eye surgery 

Question 6066) 

What is the priority problem in the client diagnosed with congestive heart failure? 

A. Fluid volume overload 

B. Decreased cardiac output 

C. Activity intolerance 

D. Knowledge deficit 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Fluid volume overload. 

Question 6067) 

Which laboratory data confirm the diagnosis of congestive heart failure? 

A. Chest X-ray (CXR) 

B. Liver function tests 

C. Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) 

D. Beta-type natriuteric peptide (BNP) 

Answer: A 

Explanation: A chest X-ray may show features of heart failure such as an increased cardiothoracic ratio, lung interstitial oedema or bilateral pleural effusions. 17 A systematic review including five studies that estimated the accuracy of an abnormal chest X-ray in detecting a diagnosis of heart failure found considerable variation between studies. 24 Sensitivity was 68% and specificity 83%.

Question 6068) 

The newer drug given to interfere with the production of angiotensin II in heart failure is:

A. Isordil 

B. Enoximone 

C. Esmolol 

D. Captopril 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Esmolol hydrochloride injection is indicated for the short-term treatment of tachycardia and hypertension that occur during induction and intubation, during surgery, on emergency from anesthesia and in the postoperative period, when in the physician's judgment such specific intervention is considered indicated. 

Question 6069) 

What are the signs of shock 

A. Sweating and forgetfulness 

B. Cold clammy skin, unconsciousness and rapid pulse rate 

C. Rapid pulse rate and unconsciousness 

D. Lethargy and slow pulse rate 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Eyes appear to stare. Cold clammy skin, Rapid pulse -> Anxiety or agitation. -> Seizures. ->Confusion or unresponsiveness. -> Low or no urine output. 

Question 6070) 

The client is diagnosed with neurogenic shock which sign/symptoms would the nurse assess in this client: 

A. Cool moist skin 

B. Bradycardia 

C. Wheezing 

D. Decreased bowel sounds 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The client will have bradycardia instead of tachycardia, which is seen in other forms of shock. 

6 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 


Question 6051) 

The nurse is planning care for a newborn of a mother with diabetes mellitus. What is the priority nursing consideration for this newborn? 

A. Developmental delays because of excessive size 

B. Maintaining safety because of low blood glucose levels 

C. Choking because of impaired suck and swallow reflexes 

D. Elevated body temperature because of excess fat and glycogen 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The newborn of a diabetic mother is at risk for hypoglycemia, so maintaining safety because of low blood glucose levels would be a priority. The newborn would also be at risk for hyperbilirubinemia, respiratory distress, hypocalcemia and congenital anomalies. Developmental delays, choking and an elevated body temperature are not expected problems. 

Question 6052) 

Rho(D) immune globulin is prescribed for a client after delivery and the nurse provides information to the client about the purpose of the medication. The nurse determines that the woman understands the purpose if the woman states that it will protect her next baby from which condition? 

A. Having Rh-positive blood 

B. Developing a rubella infection 

C. Developing physiological jaundice 

D. Being affected by Rh incompatibility 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Rh incompatibility can occur when an Rh-negative mother becomes sensitized to the Rh antigen. Sensitization may develop when an Rh-negative woman becomes pregnant with a fetus who is Rh positive. During pregnancy and at delivery, some of the fetus's Rh-positive blood can enter the maternal circulation, causing the mother's immune system to form antibodies against Rh-positive blood. Administration of Rho(D) immune globulin prevents the mother from developing antibodies against Rh-positive blood by providing passive antibody protection against the Rh antigen. 

Question 6053) 

The nurse is monitoring a postpartum client who received epidural anesthesia for delivery for the presence of a vulvar hematoma. Which assessment findings would best indicate the presence of a hematoma? 

A. Change in vital signs 

B. Signs of heavy bruising 

C. Complaints of intense pain 

D. Complaints of tearing sensation 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Because the client has had epidural anesthesia and is anesthetized, she cannot feel pain, pressure or tearing sensation. Changes in vital signs indicate hypovolemia in an anesthetized postpartum client with vulvar hematoma. 

Question 6054) 

The nurse is providing instructions about measures to prevent postpartum mastitis to a client who is breastfeeding her newborn. Which client statement would indicate a need for further instruction? 

A. "I should breastfeed every 2 to 3 hours." 

B. "I should change the breast pads frequently." 

C. "I should wash my hands well before breastfeeding." 

D. "I should wash my nipples daily with soap and water." 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Mastitis is inflammation of the breast as a result of infection. It generally is caused by an organism that enters through an injured area of the nipples, such as a crack or blister. Measures to prevent the development of mastitis include changing nursing pads when they are wet and avoiding continuous pressure on the breasts. Soap is drying and could lead to cracking of the nipples and the client should be instructed to avoid using soap on the nipples. The mother is taught about the importance of hand washing and that she should breastfeed every 2 to 3 hours. 

Question 6055) 

The nurse is monitoring a client in the immediate postpartum period for signs of hemorrhage. Which sign if noted would be an early sign of excessive blood loss? 

A. A temperature of 100.4 degree F (38 degree C) 

B. An increase in the pulse rate from 88 to 102 beats/minute 

C. A blood pressure change from 130/88 to 124/80 mm Hg 

D. An increase in the respiratory rate from 18 to 22 breaths/minute 

Answer: B 

Explanation: During the fourth stage of labor, the maternal blood pressure, pulse, and respiration should be checked every 15 minutes during the first hour. An increasing pulse is an early sign of excessive blood loss because the heart pumps faster to compensate for reduced blood volume. A slight increase in temperature is normal. The blood pressure decreases as the blood volume diminishes, but a decreased blood pressure would not be the earliest sign of hemorrhage. The respiratory rate is slightly increased from normal. 

Question 6056) 

The nurse is assessing a client in the fourth stage of labor and notes that the fundus in firm, but that bleeding is excessive. Which should be the initial nursing action?

A. Record the findigs. 

B. Massage the fundus. 

C. Notify the health care provider. 

D. Place the client in Trendelenburg's position. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: If bleeding is excessive, the cause may be laceration of the cervix or birth canal. Massaging the fundus if it is firm would not assist in controlling the bleeding. Trendelenburg's position should be avoided because it may interfere with cardiac and respiratory function. Although the nurse would record the findings, the initial nursing action would be to notify the HCP. 

Question 6057) 

The nurse is monitoring the amount of lochia drainage in a client who is 2 hours postpartum and notes that the client has saturated a perineal pad in 15 minutes. How should the nurse respond to this finding initially? 

A. Document the finding. 

B. Encourage the client to ambulate. 

C. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake 

D. Contact the health care provider and inform the HCP of this finding. 

Answer: D Explanation: Lochia is the discharge from the uterus in the postpartum period, it consists of blood from the vessels of the placental site and debris from the decidua. The following can be used as a guide to determine the amount of flow:scant less than 2.5 cm(<1 inch) on menstrual pad in 1 hour, light less than 10 cm (<4 inches) on menstrual pad in 1 hour, moderate less than 15 cm (<6 inches) on menstrual pad in 1 hour, heavy saturated menstrual pad in 1 hour, excessive menstrual pad saturated in 15 minutes. If the client is experiencing excessive bleeding, the nurse should contact the HCP in the event that postpartum hemorrhage is occurring. It may be appropriate to encourage increased fluid intake, but this is not the initial action. It is not appropriate to encourage ambulation at this time. Documentation should occur once the client has been stabilized. 

Question 6058) 

The nurse is caring for four 1-day postpartum clients. Which client assessment requires the need for follow-up? 

A. The client with mild after pains 

B. The client with a pulse rate of 60 beats/minute 

C. The client with colostrum discharge from both breasts D. The client with lochia that is red and has a foul smelling odor 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Lochia, the discharge present after birth, is red for the first 1 to 3 days and gradually decreases in amount. Normal lochia has a fleshy odor or an odor similar to menstrual flow. Foul smelling or purulent lochia usually indicates infection, and these findings are not normal. The other options are normal findings for a 1-day postpartum client. 

Question 6059) 

The postpartum nurse is providing instructions to a client after birth of a healthy newborn. Which time frame should the nurse relay to the client regarding the return of bowel function? 

A. 3 days postpartum

B. 7 days postpartum 

C. On the day of birth 

D. Within 2 weeks postpartum 

Answer: A 

Explanation: After birth, the nurse should auscultate the client's abdomen in all 4 quadrants to determine the return of bowel sounds. Normal bowel elimination usually returns 2 to 3 days postpartum. Surgery, anesthesia and the use of opioids and pain control agents also contribute to the longer period of altered bowel functions. 

Question 6060) 

The postpartum nurse is taking the vital signs of a client who delivered a healthy newborn 4 hours ago. The nurse notes that the client's temperature is 100.2 degree F. What is the priority nursing action? 

A. Document the findings. 

B. Retake the temperature in 15 minutes. 

C. Notify the health care provider. 

D. Increase hydration by encouraging oral fluids. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The client's temperature should be taken every 4 hours while she is awake. Temperatures up to 100.4 degree F in the first 24 hours after birth often are related to the dehydrating effects of labor. The appropriate action is to increase hydration by encouraging oral fluids, which should bring the temperature to a normal reading. Although the nurse also would document the findings, the appropriate action would be to increase hydration. Taking the temperature in another 15 minutes is an unnecessary action. Contacting the HCP is not necessary. 

5 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 


Question 6041) 

A nurse is teaching breast care to a client who is breastfeeding. Which client statement indicates that the teaching was effective? 

A. "I should air dry my nipples after each feeding." 

B. "Mild soap is appropriate for washing my breasts." 

C. "My breast pads should be lined with plastic shields." 

D. "I will remove my brassiere before I go to bed at night." 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Air-drying nipples after feeding limits irritation and disruption of skin integrity. 

Question 6042) A nurse is teaching breast care to a client who is breastfeeding. Which client statement indicates that the teaching was effective? 

A. "I should air dry my nipples after each feeding." 

B. "Mild soap is appropriate for washing my breasts." 

C. "My breast pads should be lined with plastic shields." 

D. "I will remove my brassiere before I go to bed at night." 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Air-drying nipples after feeding limits irritation and disruption of skin integrity. 

Question 6043) 

At what time during prenatal development should the nurse expect the greatest fetal weight gain? 

A. Third trimester 

B. Second trimester 

C. First eight weeks 

D. Implantation period 

Answer: A 

Explanation: This is the period in which the fetus stores deposits of fat 

Question 6044) What should be included in a plan of care to limit the development of hyperbilirubinemia in the breastfed neonate? 

A. Encouraging more frequent breastfeeding during the first 2 days 

B. Instituting phototherapy for 30 minutes every 6 hours for 3 days 

C. Substituting breastfeeding with formula feeding on the second day 

D. Supplementing breastfeeding with glucose-water during the first day 

Answer: A 

Explanation: More frequent breastfeeding stimulates more frequent evacuation of meconium, thus preventing resorption of bilirubin into the circulatory system. 

Question 6045) 

At 12 weeks gestation, a client who is Rh negative expels the total products of conception.What is the nursing action after it has been determined that she has not been previously sensitized? 

A. Administer RhoGAM within 72 hours. 

B. Make certain that RhoGAM is administered at the first clinic visit. 

C. Withhold the RhoGAM, because the gestation lasted only 12 weeks. 

D. Withhold the RhoGAM,because it is not used after the birth of a stillborn. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: RhoGAM must be given within 72 hours postpartum if the client has not been sensitized previously, irrespective of the length of the gestation. 

Question 6046) 

The nurse is differentiating between cephalohematoma and caput succedaneum. What finding is unique to caput succedaneum? 

A. Scalp over the area is tender. 

B. Edema crosses the suture line. 

C. Edema increases during the first day. 

D. Scalp over the area becomes echymosed. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: This is the sign that differentiate between these two conditions, cephalohematoma does not extend beyond the suture line. 

Question 6047) 

A newborn has an asymmetric Moro reflex. What does a nurse identify as a cause of this problem? 

A. Down syndrome 

B. Cranial nerve damage 

C. Cerebral or cerebellar birth injuries 

D. Brachial plexus, calvicular or humeral birth injuries 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Injury to the brachial plexus,clavicle or humerus during birth prevents abduction and adduction movements of an upper extremity. 

Question 6048) 

What should the care of a newborn infant whose mother has had untreated syphilis since the second trimester of pregnancy include? 

A. Examining for a cleft palate 

B. Testing for congenital syphilis 

C. Assessing for muscle hypotonicity 

D. Observing for maculopapular lesions of the soles 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Because physical signs of congenital syphilis are difficult to detect at birth, the infant should be screened immediately to determine if treatment is necessary. 

Question 6049) The postpartum nurse is providing instructions to the mother of a newborn with hyperbilirubinemia who is being breastfed. The nurse should provide which instruction to the mother? 

A. Feed the newborn less frequently. 

B. Continue to breastfeed every 2 to 4 hours. 

C. Switch to bottle-feeding the infant for 2 weeks. 

D. Stop breastfeeding and switch to bottle-feeding permanently. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Hyperbilirubinemia is an elevated serum bilirubin level. At any serum bilirubin level, the appearance of jaundice during the first day of life indicates a pathological process. Early and frequent feeding hastens the excretion of bilirubin. Breastfeeding should be initiated within 2 hours after birth and every 2 to 4 hours thereafter. The infant should not be fed less frequently. Switching to bottle-feeding for 2 weeks or stopping breastfeeding permanently is necessary. 

Question 6050) 

The nurse notes hypotonia, irritability and a poor sucking reflex in a full-term newborn on admission to the nursery. The nurse suspects fetal alcohol syndrome and is aware that which additional sign would be consistent with this syndrome? 

A. Length of 19 inches 

B. Abnormal palmar creases 

C. Birth weight of 6 lb, 14 oz (3120 g) 

D. Head circumference appropriate for gestational age 

Answer: B Explanation: Fetal alcohol syndrome, a diagnostic category of fetal alcohol spectrum disorders, is caused by maternal alcohol use during pregnancy. Features of newborns diagnosed with fetal alcohol syndrome includes craniofacial abnormalities, intrauterine growth restriction, cardiac abnormalities, abnormal palmar creases and respiratory distress.

Dec 17, 2020

4 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 


Question 6031) 

What is the safest position for a woman in labor when a nurse observes a prolapsed cord? 

A. Prone 

B. Fowler 

C. Lithotomy 

D. Trendelenburg 

Answer: D 

Explanation: A position in which the mother's head is below the level of the hips helps decrease compression of the cord and therefore maintains the blood supply to the fetus. 

Question 6032) 

What should a nurse anticipate about the insulin requirements of a client with diabetes on her first postpartum day? 

A. A rapid increase 

B. Will remain unchanged 

C. A sharp and sudden decrease 

D. Will decrease slowly and steadily 

Answer: C

Explanation: Insulin requirements may fall suddenly during the first 24 to 48 postpartum hours because the endocrine changes of pregnancy are reversed. 

Question 6033) 

How should a nurse screen a newborn of a diabetic mother for hypoglycemia? 

A. Test for glucose tolerance. 

B. Draw blood for a serum glucose level. 

C. Arrange for a fasting blood glucose level. 

D. Test heel blood with a glucose-oxidase strip. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Glucose-oxidase strips are used by nurses to screen infants for hypoglycemia. 

Question 6034) 

An infant is born with a bilateral cleft palate. Plans are made to begin reconstruction immediately. What nursing intervention should be included to promote parentinfant attachment? 

A. Demonstrating a positive acceptance of the infant 

B. Placing the infant in a nursery away from view of the general public 

C. Explaining to the parents that the infant will look normal after the surgery 

D. Encouraging the parents to limit contact with the infant until after the surgery 

Answer: A 

Explanation: By demonstrating acceptance of the infant, without regard for the defect, the nurse acts as a role model for the patents, thus enhancing their acceptance. 

Question 6035) 

A nurse who is assessing a newborn 3 minutes after birth takes into consideration that the heart rate of a healthy, alert neonate may range between: 

A. 120 and 180 beats/min. 

B. 130 and 170 beats/min. 

C. 110 and 160 beats/min. 

D. 100 and 130 beats/min. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The newborn's heart rate varies with activity, crying can increase it to 180 beats/min., whereas deep sleep may lower it to 80 to 100 beats/min., a rate between 110 and 160 beats/min is the average. 

Question 6036) 

At the beginning of the first formula feeding a newborn begins to cough and choke, and the lips become cyanotic. What is the immediate nursing action? 

A. Stimulate crying. 

B. Suction and then oxygenate. 

C. Substitute the formula with sterile water. 

D. Stop the feeding momentarily and then restart. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Cyanosis, choking and coughing are signs of aspiration and hypoxia. Suctioning and oxygenation are needed. 

Question 6037) 

Which behavior should a nurse identify as the Moro reflex response? 

A. Extension and adduction of the arms 

B. Abduction and then adduction of the arms 

C. Adduction of the arms and fanning of the toes 

D. Extension of the arms and curling of the fingers 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The Moro reflex is a sudden extension and abduction of the arms at the shoulders and spreading of the fingers. This is followed by flexion and adduction of the arms with the index finger and thumb forming the letter "C", the infant may cry. 

Question 6038) 

An infant's intestines are sterile at birth, thus lacking the bacteria necessary for the synthesis of: 

A. bilirubin 

B. bile salts 

C. prothrombin 

D. intrinsic factor 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Bacteria, especially Escherichia coli, produce substances necessary to synthesize prothrombin. 

Question 6039) 

A nurse teaches a group of postpartum clients that all their newborns will be screened for phenylketonuria (PKU)to : 

A. assess protein metabolism. 

B. reveal potential retardation. 

C. detect chromosomal damage. 

D. identify thyroid insufficiency. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Phenylalanine is an essential amino acid necessary for growth that may be absent in infants with phenylketonuria (PKU), testing is done on all neonates born in the United States. 

Question 6040) 

Which newborn assessment identified immediately after birth will probably necessitate prolonged follow-up care? 

A. Apgar score of 5 

B. Weight of 3500 grams 

C. Blood glucose level of 50 mg/dL 

D. Umbilical cord with 2 blood vessels 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The congenital absence of a blood vessel in the umbilical cord is often associated with life-threatening congenital anomalies. There should be two arteries and one vein. 

3 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC


Question 6021) 

A client is receiving magnesium sulfate therapy for severe pre-eclampsia. What initial sign of toxicity should alert the nurse to intervene? 

A. Hyperactive sensorium 

B. Increase in respiratory rate 

C. Lack of the knee-jerk reflex 

D. Development of a cardiac dysrhythmia 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Magnesium sulfate has a CNS depressant effect,toxic levels will be reflected by the loss of the kneejerk reflex. 

Question 6022) 

A client is admitted to the high-risk unit in preterm labor. A loading dose of 6 g of magnesium sulfate over 20 minutes is prescribed to be followed by 2 g/hr. Premixed stock is available with 40 grams of magnesium sulfate in 100 mL of D5W. At how many milliliters should a nurse set the infusion pump to complete the loading dose? 

A. 150 

B. 200 

C. 450 

D. 350 

Answer: C 

Explanation: 450 ml. Use the "Desire over Have" formula to solve the problem by using ratio and proportion. Desire / have = 6g/40g = xml/100ml -> 40x = 6000, X = 6000/40, X = 150. An infusion pump is set at milliliters per hour. 150 mL is needed in 20 minutes. There are 60 minutes in an hour, therefore , 3 x 150 = 450 mL/hr. Question 

6023) 

A nurse is assessing a client with a tentative diagnosis of hydatidiform mole. Which clinical finding should the nurse anticipate? 

A. Hypotension 

B. Decreased fetal heart rate 

C. Unusual uterine enlargement 

D. Painless, heavy vaginal bleeding 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The proliferation of trophoblastic tissue filled with fluid causes the uterus to enlarge more quickly than if a fetus were in the uterus. 

Question 6024) 

An expectant couple ask the nurse about the cause of low back pain in labor. The nurse replies that this pain occurs most often when the position of the fetus is: 

A. Breech 

B. Transverse 

C. Occiput anterior. 

D. Occiput posterior 

Answer: D 

Explanation: A persistent occiput posterior position causes intense back pain because of fetal compression of the maternal sacral nerves. 

Question 6025) 

itz baths are ordered for a client with an episiotomy during the postpartum period. A nurse encourages her to take the sitz baths because they aid the the healing process by: 

A. promoting vasodilation 

B. cleansing perineal tissue 

C. softening the incision site. 

D. tightening the rectal sphincter 

Answer: A Explanation: Heat causes vasodilation and an increased blood supply to the area. 

Question 6026) 

An infant is born precipitously in the emergency department. What should the nurse do first? 

A. Tie and cut the umbilical cord. 

B. Establish an airway for the newborn. 

C. Ascertain the condition of the uterine fundus. 

D. Arrange transport for mother and infant to the birthing unit. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The nurse should position the newborn with head slightly lower than the chest to allow mucus to flow by gravity and then rub the back to stimulate crying, which promotes oxygenation. 

Question 6027) 

Why does a nurse encourage continued health care supervision for a pregnant woman with pyelonephritis? 

A. Preeclampsia frequently occurs after pyelonephritis. 

B. Antibiotic therapy should be administered until the urine is sterile. 

C. Pelvic inflammatory disease can occur with untreated pyelonephritis. 

D. Nutritional needs change to accommodate the prescribed low-protein diet. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Healthcare supervision requires treatment with an appropriate antibiotic until two cultures of urine are negative, recurring pyelonephritis often leads to preterm birth. 

Question 6028) 

A client arrives at the hospital at 38 weeks gestation with profuse vaginal bleeding. She states that it occurred suddenly without any contractions. Which condition may the client be experiencing that requires immediate notification of the health care provider? 

A. Placenta previa 

B. Placenta accreta 

C. Ruptured uterus 

D. Concealed abruptio 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Placenta previa is classically painless bleeding, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical os, and the cervix dilates, the placenta separates and bleeds. 

Question 6029) 

A client in the prenatal clinic is diagnosed with pre-eclampsia. What clinical findings support this diagnosis? 

A. Elevated blood pressure of 150/100 mm Hg 

B. Elevated blood pressure that is accompanied by a headache 

C. Blood pressure above the baseline while fluctuating at each reading 

D. Blood pressure more than 140 mm Hg systolic accompanied by proteinuria 

Answer: D 

Explanation: A blood pressure more than 140 mm Hg systolic and 90 mm Hg diastolic along with proteinuria is diagnostic of preeclampsia, assessments should be done twice 4 to 6 hours apart. 

Question 6030) 

When does a nurse caring for a client with eclampsia determine that the risk for another seizure has subsided? 

A. After birth occurs 

B. After labor begins 

C. 48 hours postpartum 

D. 24 hours postpartum 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The danger of a seizure in a woman with eclampsia subsides when postpartum diuresis has occurred, usually 48 hours after birth, however, the risk for seizures may remain for up to 2 weeks postpartum.

2 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 


Question 6011) 

A client's membranes spontaneously rupture during active labor. The nurse inspects the perineum and determines that the umbilical cord is not visible. What is the next nursing action? 

A. Auscultate the FHR. 

B. Time the contractions. 

C. Call the health care provider. 

D. Obtain the maternal vital signs. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: When the membranes rupture, there is always the possibility of a prolapsed cord leading to fetal compromise, which will manifest itself in a slow FHR. 

Question 6012) 

A client is admitted to the birthing unit in active labor. What should the nurse expect after an amniotomy is performed? 

A. Diminished bloody show 

B. Increased and more variable FHR 

C. Less discomfort with contractions 

D. Progressive dilation and effacement 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Artificial rupture of the membranes (amniotomy) allows for more effective pressure of the fetal head on the cervix, enhancing dilation and effacement. 

Question 6013) Why should a nurse withhold food and oral fluids as a laboring client approaches the second stage of labor? 

A. The mechanical and chemical digestive processes require energy that is needed for labor.

 B. Undigested food and fluid may cause nausea and vomiting and limit the choice of anesthesia. 

C. The gastric phase of digestion stimulates the release of hydrochloric acid and may cause dyspesia. 

D. Food and fluid will further aggravate gastric peristalsis, which is already increased because of the stress of labor. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Gastric peristalsis often ceases during periods of stress. Abdominal contractions put pressure on the stomach and can cause nausea and vomiting, increasing the risk for aspiration. 

Question 6014) When a client's legs are placed in stirrups for birth, the nurse confirms that both legs are positioned simultaneously to prevent: 

A. venous stasis in the legs. 

B. pressure on the perineum. 

C. excessive pull on the fascia. 

D. trauma to the uterine ligaments. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: As the uterus rises into the abdominal cavity, the uterine ligaments become elongated and hypertrophied, raising both legs at the same time limits the tension placed on these ligaments. 

Question 6015) A laboring client is to have a pudendal block. What should a nurse teach the client about the effects of the pudendal block? 

A. Bladder sensation may be lost. 

B. She will not feel an episiotomy. 

C. She may lose the ability to push. 

D. Contractions will no longer be felt. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: A pudendal block provides anesthesia to the perineum. 

Question 6016) 

A primigravida who is at 35 weeks gestation is diagnosed with hydraminos. For what should the nurse assess the newborn? 

A. Cardiac defect 

B. Kidney disorder

C. Diabetes mellitus 

D. Esophageal atresia 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Esophageal atresia is associated with hydramnios. 

Question 6017) 

A nurse examines a client who had a cesarean birth. It is 3 days since the birth and the client is about to be discharged. Where does the nurse expect the fundus to be located? 

A. 1 finger breadth below the umbilicus 

B. 2 finger breadth below the umbilicus 

C. 3 finger breadth below the umbilicus 

D. 4 finger breadth below the umbilicus 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The fundus descends one finger breadth per day from the first postpartum day. 

Question 6018) 

A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is formula feeding. What should the nurse teach her about minimizing breast discomfort? 

A. Apply covered ice packs to her breasts. 

B. Gently apply cocoa butter to her nipples. 

C. Place warm, wet washcloths on her nipples. 

D. Manually express colostrum from her breasts. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Covered ice packs promote comfort by decreasing vasocongestion. 

Question 6019) 

A teenager at 32 weeks gestation is hospitalized with preeclampsia. She is anorexic and appears depressed. Which comment indicates to the nurse that further exploration of the client's emotional status is indicated. 

A. "I'm tired of feeling so clumsy." 

B. "I'll be glad when I can sleep all night." 

C. "I dreamed my baby had only one arm." 

D. "I was really happy before I got pregnant." 

Answer: D 

Explanation: This indicates failure to resolve conflicting feelings about pregnancy that should have been resolved in the first trimester. 

Question 6020) 

A client at 38 weeks gestation is admitted for induction of labor. Her membranes ruptured 12 hours ago. There are no other signs of labor. Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be prescribed? 

A. Oxytocin (Pitocin) 

B. Estrogen (Premarin) 

C. Ergonovine (Ergotrate) 

D. Progesterone (Prometrium) 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Oxytocin (Pitocin) is a small polypeptide hormone synthesized in the hypothalamus and secreted from the neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary gland) during parturition or suckling, it promotes powerful uterine contractions and thus is used to induce labor.

1- Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC


Question 6001) 

A pregnant client is making her first antepartum visit. She has a 2-year-old son born at 40 weeks, a 5-year-old daughter born at 38 weeks, and 7-year-old twin daughters born at 35 weeks. She had a spontaneous abortion 3 years ago at 10 weeks. Using the GTPAL format, what does the nurse document about the client's obstetric history?

A. G4 T3 P2 A1 L4 

B. G5 T2 P2 A1 L4 

C. G5 T2 P1 A1 L4 

D. G4 T3 P1 A1 L4

Answer: C 

Explanation: The acronym GTPAL reflects G-gravidity, T-term birth, P-preterm births, A-abortions,and L-living children, G5 T2 P1 A1 L4 indicates that there were 5 pregnancies, twins count as 1 pregnancy and the present pregnancy counts as 1.

Question 6002) A client at 8 weeks gestation reports having to urinate more often. The nurse explains that urinary frequency often occurs because bladder capacity during pregnancy is diminished by: 

A. atony of the detrusor muscle. 

B. compression by the enlarging uterus. 

C. compromise of the autonomic reflexes. 

D. narrowing of the ureteral entrance at the trigone

Answer: B 

Explanation: The uterus and bladder occupy the pelvic cavity and lie closely together, as the uterus enlarges with the growing fetus, it impinges on the space occupied by the bladder and thereby diminishes bladder capacity.

Question 6003) 

A nurse who is caring for a mother and her newborn infant reviews their record. Using the data below, which nursing intervention is required? 

A. Neonatal blood transfusion 

B. Maternal rubella vaccination 

C. Maternal RhoGam injection 

D. Neonatal 50% glucose infusion 

Answer: B 

Explanation: A 

rubella titer of 1:2 is inadequate immunization. A titer of 1:8 is considered immune. Rubella immunization protects the fetus of future pregnancies from significant birth defects caused by a rubella infection. These laboratory results are borderline for pregnancy but were taken during the prenatal period and do not represent the woman's current status.


Question 6004) 

What recommendation should a nurse give to clients who have fluid retention during pregnancy? 

A. Decrease fluid intake. 

B. Maintain a low-sodium diet. 

C. Elevate the lower extremities. 

D. Ask the health care provider for a diuretic 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Elevation of the extremities several times daily is recommended to decrease the dependent edema.


Question 6005) 

During the postpartum period, a client tells a nurse she is having leg-cramps. Which foods should the nurse encourage the client to eat? 

A. Liver and raisins 

B. Cheese and broccoli 

C. Eggs and lean meats 

D. Whole wheat breads and cereals 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The leg cramps may be related to low calcium intake, cheese and broccoli both have a high calcium content. 

Question 6006) 

A nurse is caring for a primigravida during labor. At 7 cm dilation a prescribed pain medication is administered. Which medication requires monitoring of the newborn for the side effect of respiratory depression? 

A. Butorphanol (Stadol) 

B. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril) 

C. Promethazine (Phenergam) 

D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Respiratory depression may occur in the newborn because the duration of action of Butorphanol (Stadol) is 3 to 4 hours and circulating blood levels will be high if birth occurs within that time.

Question 6007) 

At a prenatal visit a client who is at 36 weeks gestation states that she is having uncomfortable irregular contractions. What should the nurse recommend?

A. "Lie down until they stop." 

B. "Walk around until they subside." 

C. "Time the contractions for 30 minutes." 

D. "Take 2 extra-strength aspirins if the discomfort persists." 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Ambulation relieves the discomfort of preparatory (Braxton Hicks) contractions.

Question 6008) 

Why should a nurse teach pregnant women the importance of conserving the "spurt of energy" before labor? 

A. Energy helps to increase the progesterone level. 

B. Fatigue may influence the need for pain medication. 

C. Energy is needed to push during the first stage of labor. 

D. Fatigue will increased the intensity of the uterine contractions 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Fatigue will influence other coping strategies, such as distraction.


Question 6009) 

A primigravida is admitted to the birthing unit in early labor. A pelvic examination reveals that her cervix is 100% effaced and 3 cm dilated. The fetal head is at +1 station. In what area of the client's pelvis is the fetal occiput? 

A. Not yet engaged 

B. Below the ischial spines 

C. Entering the pelvic inlet 

D. Visible at the vaginal opening 

Answer: B 

Explanation: A station of +1 indicates that the fetal head is 1 cm below the ischial spines. 


Question 6010) 

A nurse assesses the frequency of a client's contractions by timing them from the beginning of a contraction:
A. until the uterus starts to relax. 

B. to the end of a second contraction. 

C. until the uterus completely relaxes. 

D. to the beginning of the next contraction. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: This is the accepted way to determine the frequency of the contractions.



110 - Nursing Exams Questions & Answers - Svastham Exemplar

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