21 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 

Question 6201) 

A nurse is caring for a client with an impaired immune system. Which blood protein associated with the immune system is important for the nurse to consider? 

A. Albumin 

B. Globulin 

C. Thrombin 

D. Hemoglobin 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The gamma-globulin fraction in the plasma is the fraction that includes the antibodies. 

Question 6202) 

What is the priority nursing intervention for a client during the immediate postoperative period? 

A. Monitoring vital signs 

B. Observing for hemorrhage 

C. Maintaining a patent airway 

D. Recording the intake and output 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Maintenance of a patent airway is always the priority because airway obstruction impedes breathing and may result in death. 

Question 6203) 

What assessment of the pulse should the nurse identify when a client's on demand pacemaker is functioning effectively? 

A. Regular rhythm 

B. Palpable at all pulse sites 

C. At least at the demand rate 

D. Equal to the pacemaker setting 

Answer: C 

Explanation: On-demand pacing initiates impulses when the client's pulse rate begins to fall below the preset rate. A rate below this indicates malfunction of the pacemaker. 

Question 6204) 

A nurse identifies that the client understands information about vitamin K when the client states, Vitamin K is: 

A. found in a variety of foods, so there is no danger of deficiency. 

B. easily absorbed without assistance, so everything eaten is absorbed. 

C. rarely found in dietary foods, so a natural deficiency can easily occur. 

D. produced in sufficient amounts by intestinal bacteria, so metabolic needs are met. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: vitamin K is synthesized by intestinal bacteria but is also found in large quantities in green leafy vegetables. 

Question 6205) 

Nurse Seema is administering 2 unit packed RBC's on a client with a low hemoglobin. The nurse will prepare which of the following in order to transfuse the blood ? 

A. Microfusion set 

B. Polyvol Pro Burette set. 

C. Photofusion set. 

D. Tubing with an in-line filter. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The in-line filter helps ensure that any particles larger than the size of filter are caught in the filter and are not infused with the client. Option A is incorrect since the tubing that should be used is a macro drip. Option B is used for administration of IV medication infusion. Option C is incorrect since blood does not need any protection from light. 

Question 6206) 

To verify the age of blood cells in a blood. The nurse will check which of the following? 

A. Blood type 

B. Blood group 

C. Blood identification number 

D. Blood expiration date. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The safe storage of blood usually takes 35 days. Examining the expiration date is an important responsibility of a nurse prior hanging the blood. 

Question 6207) A client has an order to receive a one unit of packed RBC's. The nurse make sure which of the following intravenous solutions to hang with the blood product at the client's bedside? 

A. 0.9% Sodium chloride. 

B. 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride. 

C. Balanced multiple maintenance solution with 5% dextrose 

D. 5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 0.9% sodium chloride is a standard solution used to follow infusion of blood products. Option B, C, D : IV solution containing dextrose in water will hemolyze red cells. 

Question 6208) 

Nurse Jay is caring for a client with an ongoing transfusion of packed RBC's when suddenly the client is having difficulty of breathing skin is flushed and having chills. Which action should nurse Jay take first? 

A. Administer oxygen. 

B. Place the client on droplight. 

C. Check the client's temperature. 

D. Stop the transfusion. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The client in this situation is experiencing transfusion reaction so the priority action of the nurse is to first stop the transfusion. 

Question 6209) 

After terminating the transfusion during a reaction. Which action should the nurse immediately be taken next ? 

A. Run a solution of 5% dextrose in water. 

B. Run normal saline at keep vein open rate. 

C. Remove the IV line. 

D. Fast drip 200 ml normal saline. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The nurse will infuse normal saline at a KVO rate to keep the patency of the IV line while waiting for further orders from the physician. Option A: IV solution containing dextrose will hemolyze the red cells. Option C : The nurse will not remove the IV line because then there would be no IV access route. Option D: Doing a fast drip will potential lead to congestion and is not done without the physician order. 

Question 6210) 

A client is receiving a platelet transfusion. The nurse determines that the client is gaining from this therapy if the client exhibits which of the following? 

A. Less frequent febrile episodes. 

B. Increased level of hematocrit. 

C. Less episodes of bleeding. 

D. Increased level of hemoglobin. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Platelet transfusions may be given to prevent bleeding when the platelet count falls down. Option A: decline in the febrile episode will happen after the transfusion of agranulocytes. Option B: An increased level of hemoglobin and hematocrit will happen after the transfusion of red blood cells. 

20 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

Question 6191) 

What nursing action will limit hypoxia when suctioning a client's airway? 

A. Apply suction only after catheter is inserted. 

B. Limit suctioning with catheter to half a minute. 

C. Lubricate the catheter with saline before insertion. 

D. Use a sterile catheter for each suctioning episode. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The negative pressure from suctioning removes oxygen as well as secretions, suction should be applied only after the catheter is inserted and is being withdrawn. 

Question 6192) 

The arterial blood gases of a client with chronic obstructive a pulmonary disease (COPD) deteriorate, and respiratory failure is impending. For which clinical indicator should the nurse assess first? 

A. Cyanosis 

B. Bradycardia 

C. Mental confusion 

D. Distended neck veins 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Decreased oxygen to the vital centers in the brain results in restlessness and confusion. 

Question 6193) A nurse identifies that the client understands information about vitamin K when the client states, Vitamin K is : 

A. found in a variety of foods, so there is no danger of deficiency. 

B. easily absorbed without assistance, so everything eaten is absorbed. 

C. rarely found in dietary foods, so a natural deficiency can easily occur. 

D. produced in sufficient amounts by intestinal bacteria, so metabolic needs are met. Answer: D 

Explanation: vitamin K is synthesized by intestinal bacteria but is also found in large quantities in green leafy vegetables. 

Question 6194) 

A nurse is teaching a client how to use the call bell system. Which level of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs does this nursing action address? 

A. Safety 

B. Self-esteem 

C. Physiologic 

D. Interpersonal 

Answer: A 

Explanation: A call bell system enables the client to communicate with the staff and support safety and security,which is a second level need. 

Question 6195) 

Which nurse collaborates directly with the client to establish and implemented a basic plan of care after admission? 

A. Primary nurse 

B. Nurse clinician 

C. Nurse coordinator 

D. Clinical nurse specialist 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The primary nurse provides or oversees all aspects of care, including assessment, implementation and evaluation of that care. 

Question 6196) A pregnant client is now in the third trimester. The client tells the nurse, "I want to be knocked out for the birth." How should the nurse respond? 

A. You are worried about too much pain. 

B. You don't want to be awake during the birth. 

C. I can understand that because labor is uncomfortable. 

D. I will tell your health care provider about this request. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Paraphrasing encourages the client to express the rationale for this request. 

Question 6197) 

What should a nurse consider when trying to promote affective learning in a client with a newly diagnosed disease? 

A. Client's past experiences 

B. Client's personal resources 

C. Stress of the total situation 

D. Type of onset of the disease 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Past experiences have the most meaningful influence on present learning. 

Question 6198) 

What clinical finding does a nurse anticipate when admitting a client with an extracellular fluid volume excess? 

A. Rapid, thready pulse 

B. Distended jugular veins 

C. Elevated hematocrit level 

D. Increased serum sodium level 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Because of fluid overload in the intravascular space, the neck veins become visibly distended. 

Question 6199) A client reports vomiting and diarrhea for 3 days. What clinical finding will most accurately indicate that the client has a fluid deficit? 

A. Presence of dry skin 

B. Loss of body weight 

C. Decrease in blood pressure 

D. Altered general appearance 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Dehydration is most readily and accurately measured by serial assessments of body weight: 1 L of fluid weighs 2.2 lb. 

Question 6200) 

A nurse assesses a client's serum electrolyte levels in the laboratory report. What electrolyte in intracellular fluid should the nurse consider most important? 

A. Sodium 

B. Calcium 

C. Chloride 

D. Potassium 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The concentration of potassium is greater inside the cell and is important in establishing a membrane potential, a critical factor in the cell's ability to function.

 

19 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 

Question 6181) 

Trisomy 21 is otherwise called: 

A. Knifelter's syndrome 

B. Turner's syndrome 

C. Sickle cell anemia 

D. Down's syndrome 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Down's syndrome is also known as trisomy 21 is a genetic disorder caused by presence of all of a third copy chromosome 21 it is typically associated with physical growth delay. 

Question 6182) 

The nurse is aware that children born with a missing chromosome are most likely to have:

A. Cretinism 

B. Phenylketonuria 

C. Down syndrome 

D. Turner's syndrome 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Turner syndrome is genetic disorder that affects a girls development. The cause is a missing or incomplete x chromosome 45x 

Question 6183) 

After birth of a baby, breastfeeding should be started - 

A. Within 2 hours 

B. Within 1/2hours 

C. On second day 

D. After 1 week 

Answer: B 

Explanation: After birth of a baby, breastfeeding should be started within 1/2 hours. 

Question 6184) 

Increase in the size or mass of tissues, considered as: 

A. Growth 

B. Maturation 

C. Development 

D. Progress 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Increase in the size or mass of tissues, considered as Growth. 

Question 6185) 

Maturation of functions or skills in a child is known as : 

A. Growth 

B. Development 

C. Increment 

D. Progress 

Answer: B

Explanation: Maturation of functions or skills in a child is known as: Development 

Question 6186) 

At which age human fetus starts to secrete hormone thyroxine : 

A. 12th week of gestation 

B. 24th week of gestation 

C. 6th week of gestation 

D. 32nd week gestation 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Human fetus secretes thyroxine form 12th week of gestation. 

Question 6187) 

At which age size, of head reaches 90% of the adult head size: 

A. 2 years 

B. 4 years 

C. 6 years 

D. 8 years 

Answer: A 

Explanation: At a birth the head size is about 65-70% of the expected head size in adults 90% of the adult head size by the age of 2 year. 

Question 6188) Normal birth weight of a baby is : 

A. 2 kg 

B. 2 - 2.25 kg 

C. 2.5 - 3 kg 

D. 3 - 3.5 kg 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The average weight of a neonate is 3 kg in india child 2.5 kg - 3.5 kg is considered as normal. 

Question 6189) A client with upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding develops mild anemia. What should the nurse expect to be prescribed for this client? 

A. Epogen 

B. Dextran 

C. Iron salts 

D. Vitamin B12 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Iron is needed in the formation of hemoglobin. 

Question 6190) 

A client who is weak, dyspneic, and jaundiced has a bilirubin level greater than 2 mg/100 mL blood volume. With which problem are these clinical findings consistent? 

A. Hemolytic anemia 

B. Pernicious anemia 

C. Decreased rate of red blood cell destruction 

D. Low oxygen carrying capacity of erythrocytes 

Answer: A 

Explanation: An elevated plasma bilirubin level could indicate an increased rate of RBC destruction (bilirubin is a product of free hemoglobin metabolism): the individual may have a hemolytic anemia (e.g. thalassemia major [Cooley anemia], glucose-6-phosphate). 

18 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 

Question 6171) 

Immunity transferred to fetus from mother through placenta is: 

A. Active natural immunity 

B. Passive artificial immunity 

C. Passive natural immunity 

D. Active artificial immunity 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Passive immunity is the transfer of active humoral immunity in the form of readymade antibodies. Passive immunity can occur naturally, when maternal antibodies are transferred to the fetus through the placenta, and it can also be induced artificially, when high levels of antibodies specific to a pathogen or toxin. 

Question 6172) The drug of choice for eclampsia: 

A. MgSo4 

B. Prostodin 

C. Timplol 

D. Beta adrenergic blocker 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for preventing and treating convulsions in severe preeclampsia and eclampsia. Maintenance dose, Give 5g of 50% magnesium sulfate solution with 1 ml of 2% lignocaine in the same syringe by deep IM injection into alternate buttocks every four hours. Continue treatment for 24 hours after delivery or the last convulsion, whichever occurs last. 

Question 6173) The duration of puerperal period is: 

A. From delivery to 1 week 

B. Delivery to 4 weeks 

C. Delivery to 6 weeks 

D. Delivery to 10 weeks 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Puerperium is defined as the time from the delivery of the placenta through the first few weeks after the delivery. This period is usually considered to be 6 weeks in duration. By 6 weeks after delivery, most of the changes of pregnancy, labor and delivery have resolved and the body has reverted to the nonpregnant state. 

Question 6174) First fetal movement felt by the mother is called: 

A. Ballotment 

B. Quickening 

C. Lightening 

D. Kicking 

Answer: B 

Explanation: In pregnancy terms, quickening is the moment in pregnancy when the pregnant woman starts to feel or perceive fetal movements in the uterus. 

Question 6175) 

As per the latest WHO guidelines which dehydration status required ORS : 

A. mild dehydration 

B. Moderate dehydration 

C. Severe dehydration 

D. Any form of dehydration 

Answer: D 

Explanation: ORS is required any form of dehydration. 

Question 6176) 

Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy? 

A. Rubella 

B. OPV 

C. BCG 

D. Hepatitis 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Rubella vaccination is contraindicated during pregnancy. During mass immunization women of childbearing age against rubella, women unknowingly pregnant may be to evaluate the effects of rubella vaccination during pregnancy. 

Question 6177) 

The procedure of removal and ligation of Fallopian tube is referred as : 

A. Mastectomy 

B. Vasectomy 

C. Appendectomy 

D. Tubectomy 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Tubal ligation or tubectomy is a surgical procedure for sterilization in which a woman's fallopian tube are clamped and blocked or severed and sealed either of which prevents eggs from reaching the uterus for implantation. Tubal ligation is considered a permanent method of sterilization and birth control. 

Question 6178) The system of storing and transporting vaccines is termed: 

A. Cold chain 

B. Freezer chain 

C. Cool chain 

D. Vaccination 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The purpose of the vaccine "cold chain" is to maintain product quality from the time of manufacture until the point of administration by ensuring that vaccines are stored and transported within WHO recommended temperature ranges. This module provides guidance for workers at health facility level. 

Question 6179) What is the normal dilation of cervix? 

A. 20 cm 

B. 50 cm 

C. 7 cm D. 

10 cm 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The time of the onset of true until the cervix is completely dilated to 10 cm. 

Question 6180) 

The inflammation and degeneration of liver parenchyma is referred as: 

A. Cirrhosis 

B. Jaundice 

C. Colitis 

D. Cystitis 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The inflammation and degeneration of liver parenchyma is referred as cirrhosis

17 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 

Question 6161) 

Which among the following vaccine is stored in the freezer compartment? 

A. TT 

B. DPT 

C. Typhoid 

D. Measles 

Answer: D 

Explanation: In the refrigerator, OPV vails are stored in the freezer compartment (0-4 C) in the main compartment (4-10 C) BCG, measles and MMR are kept in the top rack (below the freezer) other vaccine like DPT, DT, TT, hepatitis A and typhoid are stored in the middle racks while hepatitis A and typhoid are stored in the middle racks, while hepatitis B, varicella and diluents are stored in the lower racks. 

Question 6162) 

Most preferred site of I/M injection in children is : 

A. Gluteal muscle 

B. Deltoid 

C. Lateral aspects of mid-thigh 

D. Ventrogluteal 

Answer: C 

Explanation: There are generally four sites that can be used to give an intramuscular injection. These are best muscle to use infants and small children is the vastus lateralis muscle in the thigh. 

Question 6163) 

The blood groups referred as universal donor is: 

A. O 

B. AB 

C. A 

D. B 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

At one time, Type O negative blood was considered the universal donor type. This implied that anyone - regardless of blood type - could receive type O negative blood without risking a transfusion reaction. But it's now known that even type O negative blood may have antibodies that cause serious reactions during a transfusion. And blood transfusions in general carry some risk of complications. 

Question 6164) 

During pregnancy complication of an infant delivered by cesarean section: 

A. Respiratory distress 

B. Hypothermia 

C. Hyperthermia 

D. Anemia 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

One of the biggest challenges a newborn faces after birth is the task of making a smooth transition to air breathing. This task is complicated by the fact that fetal lungs are full of fluid which must be cleared rapidly to allow for gas exchange. Respiratory morbidity as a result of failure to clear fetal lung is not uncommon and can be particularly problematic in some infants delivered by elective cesarean delivery (ECS). 

Question 6165) 

ICDS programmers was initiated related to mother and child is : 

A. 1965 

B. 1975 

C. 1985 

D. 1981 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme is world's largest community based programme. The scheme is targeted at children upto the age of 6 years, pregnant and lactating mothers and women 16-44 years of age. The scheme is aimed to improve the health, nutrition and education (KAP) of the target community. Launched on 2 October 1975, the scheme has completed 25 years of its operational age. The article describes in brief, the organisation, achievements and drawbacks of this national programme. It also suggests various thrust areas for its betterment and further improvement. 

Question 6166) 

The national health programmes related to mother and child is: 

A. Maternal and child health programme 

B. Child survival and safe motherhood programme (CSSM) 

C. Reproductive and child health 

D. All of the above 

Answer: D 

Explanation: All programme is related to mother and child 

Question 6167) 

Which formula is used for calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD)? 

A. Naegele's rule 

B. Infant formula 

C. Labor rule 

D. Rule of nine 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Naegele's rule is a standard way of calculating the due date for a pregnancy. The rule estimates the expected date of delivery by adding one year, subtracting three months, and adding seven days to the first day of a woman's last menstrual period(LMP). The result is approximately 280 days (40 weeks) from the start of the last menstrual period. Another method is by adding 9 months and 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period. 

Question 6168) 

Total number of bones in your body is: 

A. 208 

B. 206 

C. 204 

D. 200 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The skeleton of an human consists of 206 bones. It is composed of 300 bones at birth, which decreases to 80 bones in the axial skeleton (29 in the skull and 52 in the torso) and 126 bones in the appendicular skeleton (32x2 in the upper extremities including both arms and 31x2 in the lower extremities including both legs). Many small and variable supernumerary bones, such as some sesamoid bones, are not included in this count. 

Question 6169) 

Total number of chromosomes in your body is: 

A. 47 

B. 44 

C. 46 

D. 45 

Answer: C 

Explanation: In humans, each cell normally contains 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46. Twenty two of these pairs, called autosomes, look the same in both males and females. The 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, differ between males and females. Females have two copies of the X chromosomes, while males have one X and one Y chromosome. 

Question 6170) 

Bluish discoloration of the vagina is called: 

A. Hegar's sign 

B. Goodell's sign 

C. Chadwick's sign 

D. Rovsing' sign 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The vaginal walls have taken on a deeper color caused by the increased vascularity because of increased hormones. It is noted at the sixth week when associated with pregnancy. It may also be noted with a rapidly growing uterine tumor or any cause of pelvic congestion. 

16 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 

Question 6151) The nurse is reinforcing home care instruction to the mother of 10 year child with hemophilia. Which of the following activities does the nurse suggest that child safety participate friends: 

A. Basketball 

B. Swimming 

C. Cricket 

D. Hockey 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Children with hemophilia need to avoid contact sports and need to take precautions, such as wearing elbow and knee pads and helmets, when participating in other sports. The safest activity that will prevent injury is swimming. 

Question 6152) 

The husband of a client asks the nurse about the protein restricted diet ordered because of advanced liver disease. 

A. "The liver cannot rid the body of ammonia that is made by the breasdown of protein in the digestive system" 

B. "The magnesium hydroxide with your medication to lighten the urine color." 

C. "Most people have too much protein in their diets.| 

D. "Because of portal hyperemesis, the blood flows around the liver and ammonia made form protein collects in the brain collects in the brain causing hallucinations." 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Paracentesis involves the removal of ascetic fluid form the peritoneal cavity through a puncture made below the umbilicus. 

Question 6153) 

Immediately after cholecystectomy, the nursing action that should assume the highest priority is:

A. encouraging the client to take adequate deep breaths by mouth 

B. Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe 

C. Change the dressing quickly 

D. irrigate the T-tube frequently 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Pain in acute pancreatitis is caused by irritation and edema of the inflamed pancreas as well as spasm due to obstruction of the pancreatic ducts. 

Question 6154) 

After surgery, GIna returns form the Post-anesthesia Care Unit with a nasogastric tube in place following a gall bladder surgery. 

A. Call the physician immediately 

B. Administer the prescribed antiemetic 

C. Check the patency of the nasogastric tube for any obstruction 

D. Change the patient's position 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The client is showing signs of anxiety reaction to a stressful event. Recognizing the client;s anxiety conveys acceptance of his behavior and will allow for verbalization of feelings and concerns. 

Question 6155) 

Mr. Ramesh, diagnosed with Bladder Cancer, is scheduled for a cystectomy with the creation of an ileal conduit in the morning. He is wringing his hands and pacing the floor when the nurse enters his room. What is the best approach? 

A. Good evening, Mr. Ramesh. Wasn't it a pleasant day,today? 

B. Mr. Ramesh, you must be so worried. I'll leave you alone with your thoughts. 

C. Mr. Ramesh, you'll wear out the hospital floors and yourself at this rate. 

D. Mr. Ramesh, you appear anxious to me. How are you feeling about tomorrow's surgery? 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The client is showing signs of anxiety reaction to a stressful event. Recognizing the client's anxiety conveys acceptance of his behavior and will allow for verbalization of feelings and concerns. 

Question 6156) 

The husband of a client asks the nurse about the protein-restricted diet ordered because of advanced liver disease. What statement by the nurse would best explain the purpose of the diet? 

A. The liver cannot rid the body of ammonia that is made by the breakdown of protein in the digestive system. 

B. The liver heals better with a high carbohydrates diet rather than protein. 

C. Most people have too much protein in their diets. The amount of this diet is better for liver healing. 

D. Because of portal hyperemesis, the blood flows around the liver and ammonia made from protein collects in the brain causing hallucinations. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The largest source of ammonia is the enzymatic and bacterial digestion of dietary and blood proteins in the GI tract. A protein-restricted diet will therefore decrease ammonia production. 

Question 6157) 

Immediately after cholecystectomy, the nursing action that should assume the the highest priority is: 

A. encouraging the client to take adequate deep breaths by mouth 

B. Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe 

C. Changing the dressing at least BID 

D. Irrigate the T-tube frequently 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Cholecystectomy requires a subcostal incision. To minimize pain, client have a tendency to take shallow breaths which can lead to respiratory complication like pneumonia and atelectasis. Deep breathing and coughing exercises can help prevent such complications. 

Question 6158) 

A Sengstaken Blakemore tube is inserted in the effort to stop the bleeding esophageal varices in a patient with complicated liver cirrhosis. Upon insertion of the tube, the client complains of difficulty of breathing. The first action of the nurse is to: 

A. Deflate the esophageal balloon. 

B. Monitor VS. 

C. Encourage him to take deep breaths. 

D. Notify the MD. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: When a client with a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube develops difficulty of breathing, it means the tube is displaced and the inflated balloon is in the or pharynx causing airway obstruction. 

Question 6159) 

The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched on ___________ by the Government of India: 

A. 5th April 2003 

B. 12th April 2005 

C. 5th March 2005 

D. 5rh March 20006 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The government of India to address the health needs of underserved rural areas. Launched on 12th April 2005 by Indian Prime Minister Manmohan Singh, the NRHM was initially tasked with addressing the health needs of 18 states that had been identified as having weak public health indicators. The Union Cabinet headed by Dr. Manmohan Singh vide its decision dated 1 May 2013, has approved the launch of National Urban Health Mission as a Submission of an overarching National Health Mission, with National Rural Health Mission being the other submission of National Health Mission. 

Question 6160) Electrolyte need to be replaced in diabetic ketoacidosis is: 

A. Calcium 

B. Magnesium 

C. Sodium 

D. Potassium 

Answer: C 

Explanation: On average, patients with DKA may have the following deficit of water and key electrolytes per kg of body weight: free water 100 mL/kg, sodium 7-10 mEq/kg, DKA. The goal is to replace the total volume loss within 24-36 hours with 50% of resuscitation fluid being administered during the first 8-12 hours. 

15 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 

Question 6141) 

Of the following organelles, which group is involved in manufacturing : 

A. Lysosome, vacuole, ribosome 

B. Ribosome, rough ER, smooth ER 

C. Vacuole, rough ER, smooth ER 

D. Smooth ER, ribosome, vacuole 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Ribosome, rough ER, smooth ER 

Question 6142)

The lymphocytes which are associated with humoral immunity: 

A. T-Lymphocytes 

B. B-Lymphocytes 

C. Both A and B 

D. Neutrophils 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The humoral immunity is associated with B-lymphocytes and is responsible for destroying the pathogens by producing. 

Question 6143) 

Part of the blood carries minerals, vitamins, sugar and other foods to the body's cell? 

A. Plasma 

B. Platelets 

C. Red corpuscles 

D. White corpuscles 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Minerals, vitamins, sugar and foods to body cells are carried by Plasma of the blood. Explanation : Blood is composed of four different parts namely. Red blood corpuscles (RBC). White blood corpuscles (WBC). Platelets, Plasma. Each part of the cell is specific to certain functions. 

Question 6144) 

Select the statement about red blood cells that is incorrect: 

A. Mature red blood cells lack nuclei. 

B. Red blood cells contain hemoglobin. 

C. Deoxyhemoglobin carries oxygen. 

D. Red blood cells lack mitochondria. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Deoxyhemoglobin carries oxygen. 

Question 6145) 

The largest cells in the blood that leave the bloodstream to become macrophages are the: 

A. Eosinophils 

B. Monocytes 

C. Basophils 

D. Neutrophils 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Macrophages are formed through the differentiation of monocytes, one of the major groups of white blood cells of the immune system. When there is tissue damage or infection, the monocytes leave the bloodstream and enter the affected tissue or organ and undergo a series of changes to become macrophages. 

Question 6146) 

A person with eosinophilia, or greater than normal number of eosinophils is most likely suffering from : 

A. Allergies or internal parasites 

B. Anemia 

C. An autoimmune disease 

D. Diabetes 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Eosinophilia is a higher than normal level of eosinophils. Eosinophils are type of disease-fighting white blood cell. This condition most often indicates a parasitic infection an allergic reaction or cancer. 

Question 6147) 

Choose the correct order for the steps of hemostasis: 

A. Blood coagulation, platelet plug formation, blood vessel spasm 

B. Platelet plug formation, blood coagulation, blood vessel spasm 

C. Blood vessel spasm, platelet plug formation, blood coagulation 

D. Blood vessel spasm, blood coagulation, platelet plug formation 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Hemostasis includes three steps that occur in a rapid sequence: 1) vascular spasm, or vasoconstriction, a brief and intense contraction of blood vessels, 2) formation of a platelet plug, and 3) blood clotting or coagulation, which reinforces the platelet plug with fibrin mesh that acts as a glue to hold the clot together. Once blood flow has ceased, tissue repair can begin. 

Question 6148) 

Which clothing factor is related from damaged tissue and initiates a chain of clothing events? 

A. Prothrombin 

B. Thrombin 

C. Fibrin 

D. Tissue thromboplastin 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The extrinsic pathway begins with a substance called tissue factor released by damaged blood vessels and surrounding tissues. In the presence of other plasma proteins (clotting factors) and calcium ions,this leads to the activation of a protein called factor X. 

Question 6149) 

Erythroblastosis details also known as hemolytic disease of the newborn, most often occurs in _ mothers carrying _ fetuses: 

A. Rh+:Rh

B. Rh-:Rh+ 

C. Type A : type O 

D. Type B : type A 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Erythroblastosis details also known as hemolytic disease of the newborn, most often occurs in Rh- _ mothers carrying Rh+ _ fetuses. 

Question 6150) 

Most common Chemical that used as blood bank anticoagulant: 

A. EDTA 

B. Heparin 

C. Tri-Sodium Citrate 

D. Double Oxalate 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Tri-sodium Citrate is the anticoagulant of choice for coagulation studies because factor V and VIII are stable in citrate and integrity of other factors is also preserved. Historically 3.8% citrate was used and is still being used as an anticoagulant for blood collection in coagulation studies.

14 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

Question 6131) 

Which is contraindicated for a client with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? 

A. treating the underlying cause 

B. administering heparin 

C. administering warfarin sodium 

D. replacing depleted products 

Answer: C 

Explanation: DIC has not been found to respond to oral anticoagulants such as warfarin sodium. 

Question 6132) 

Which is a finding associated with internal bleeding with disseminated intravascular coagulation? 

A. Bradycardia 

B. Hypertension 

C. Increasing abdominal girth 

D. Petechiae 

Answer: C 

Explanation: As blood collects in the peritoneal cavity, it causes dilation and distention, which is reflected in increased abdominal girth. 

Question 6133) 

A client with neutropenia has an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 900. What is the client's risk of infection? 

A. normal risk 

B. moderate risk 

C. high risk 

D. extremely high risk 

Answer: B 

Explanation: A client is at moderate risk when the ANC is < 1,000. 

Question 6134) 

Twenty-four hours after a bone marrow aspiration, the nurse evaluates which client outcome as an appropriate one? 

A. The client maintains bed rest.

B. There is redness and swelling at the aspiration site. 

C. The client requests a strong analgesic for pain. 

D. There is no bleeding at the aspiration site. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: After a bone marrow aspiration, the puncture site should be checked every 10 to 15 minutes for bleeding. 

Question 6135) 

Which clinical manifestation does the nurse most likely observe in a client with Hodgkin's disease? 

A. difficulty swallowing 

B. painless, enlarged cervical lymph nodes 

C. difficulty breathing 

D. a feeling of fullness over the liver 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Painless and enlarged cervical lymph nodes, tachycardia, weight loss, weakness and fatigue, and night sweats are signs of Hodgkin's disease. 

Question 6136) 

Platelets: 

A. Stick to the damages area of a blood vessel and help to seal the break. 

B. Have a lifespan of About 120 days. 

C. Are the precursors of leukocytes 

D. Have multiple nuclei 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Stick to the damage area of a blood vessel and help to seal the break. 

Question 6137) 

Fred's blood type was determined to be AB+. Which of the following is true of Fred's blood? 

A. There are no antibodies to antigens A,B or Rh is the plasma 

B. The RBSs contain the A and B antigens on their nuclei 

C. The blood totally lacks the Rh factor. 

D. He cannot receive blood from someone who is type O negative. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: There are no antibodies A,B or Rh is the plasma. 

Question 6138) 

Anemia is: 

A. Any condition in which the body has an abnormally low oxygen carrying capacity. 

B. Only a genetic disorder. 

C. Marked by a massive increase in blood viscosity 

D. Never the result of nutrient deficiency. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Any condition in which the bodies has an abnormally low oxygen carrying capacity. 

Question 6139) 

To enter or leave an cell, substances most pass through : 

A. Microtubule 

B. The Golgi apparatus 

C. A ribosome 

D. The plasma membrane 

Answer: D 

Explanation: To enter or leave the cell, the substance must pass through the cell membranes bcoz cell wall is freely permeable and so it allows any substances to enter the cell. And on the other hand,cell membrane is selectively permeable, so it allows only selective substances to enter the cell. 

Question 6140) 

During blood donation, the removal of blood components is called: 

A. Cytophresis 

B. Plasmaphresis 

C. Aphresis 

D. Leukapheresis 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Apheresis definition is - withdrawal of blood from a donor's body, removal of one or more blood components (such as plasma, platelets or white blood cells) and transfusion of the remaining blood back into the donor - called also pheresis.

 

13 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 

Question 6121) 

The nurse is administering packed blood cells to a client. The nurse should first: 

A. discontinue the IV catheter if a blood transfusion reaction occurs. 

B. administer the PRBCs through a percutaneously inserted central catheter line with a 20 - gauge needle. 

C. flush PRBCs with 5% dextrose and 0.45% normal saline solution. 

D. stay with the client during the first 15 minutes of infusion. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The most likely time for a blood transfusion reaction to occur is during the first 15 minutes or first 50 mL of the infusion. 

Question 6122) The nurse is teaching a client and his family about the client's new diagnosis of hemochromatosis. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching plan? 

A. Hemochromatosis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the HEF gene. 

B. Individuals who are heterozygous of hemochromatosis rarely develop the disease. 

C. Individuals who are homozygous for hemochromatosis are carriers of hemochromatosis. 

D. Men are at greater risk for hemochromatosis. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The nurse should teach the client and family that individuals who are heterozygous for hemochromatosis rarely develop the disease. 

Question 6123) 

A client who had received 25 mL of packed red blood cells how low back pain and pruritus. After stopping the infusion, the nurse should take what action next? 

A. Administer prescribed antihistamine and an antipyretic. 

B. Collect blood and urine samples and send to the lab. 

C. Administer prescribed diuretics. 

D. Administer prescribed vasopressors. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: ABO and Rh-incompatible blood causes an antigen-antibody reaction that produces hemolysis or agglutination of red blood cells. 

Question 6124) 

A client is to receive epoetin injections. What laboratory value should the nurse assess before giving the injection? 

A. Hematocrit 

B. Partial thromboplastin time 

C. Hemoglobin concentration 

D. Prothrombin time 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Epoetin is a recombinant DNA form of erythropoietin, which stimulates the production of red blood cells and therefore causes the hematocrit to rise. 

Question 6125) 

A client is afraid of receiving vitamin B12 injections because of potential toxic reactions. Which is the nurse's best response to relieve these fears? 

A. Vitamin B12 will cause ringing in the ears before a toxic level is reached. 

B. Vitamin B12 may cause a very mild rash initially. 

C. Vitamin B12 cause mild nausea but nothing toxic. 

D. Vitamin B12 is generally free to toxicity because it is water soluble. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Vitamin B12 is a water soluble vitamin. When water soluble vitamins are taken in excess of the body needs, they are filtered through kidneys and excreted vit. B12 is considered be nontoxic. 

Question 6126) 

A client with macrocytic anemia has a burn on the foot and reports watching television while lying on a heating pad. Which action should be the nurse's first response? 

A. Assess for potential abuse. 

B. Check for diminished sensations. 

C. Document the findings. 

D. Clean and dress the area. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Macrocytic anemias can result from deficiencies in vitamin B12 deficiency causes diminished sensations of peripheral nerve endings. 

Question 6127) 

Which is a late symptom of polycythaemia vera? 

A. headache 

B. dizziness 

C. pruritus 

D. Shortness of breath 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Pruritus is a late symptom that results from abnormal histamine metabolism. 

Question 6128) 

A 25 year old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus was admitted with a severe viral respiratory tract infection and diffuse petechiae. Based on these data, it is most important that the nurse further evaluate the client's recent: 

A. quality and quantity of food intake. 

B. type and amount of fluid intake. 

C. extent of weakness and fatigue. 

D. length and amount of menstrual flow. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: A recent viral infection in a female client between the age of 20 and 30 with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus and an insidious onset of diffuse petechiae are hallmarks of idiopathic onset of diffuse petechiae purpura. 

Question 6129) 

When a client with thrombocytopenia has a severe headache, what does the nurse interpret that this may indicate? 

A. stress of the disease 

B. cerebral bleeding 

C. migraine headache 

D. sinus congestion 

Answer: B 

Explanation: When the platelet count is very low, red blood cells leak out of the blood vessels and into the tissue. 

Question 6130) 

A client's bone marrow report reveals normal stem cells and precursors of platelets (megakaryocytes) in the presence of decreased circulating platelets. The nurse recognizes a knowledge deficit when the client says: 

A. I need to stop flossing and throw away my hard toothbrush. 

B. I am glad that my report turned out normal. 

C. Now I know why I have all these bruises. 

D. I should not jump off that last step anymore. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The client who states that the test results are normal has only heard that the bone marrow is functioning. 

12 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 

Question 6111) 

A client had a resection of the terminal ileum 3 years ago. While obtaining a health history and physical assessment, the nurse finds that the client has weakness, shortness of breath and a sore tongue. Which additional information from the client indicates a need for client teaching? 

A. I have been drinking plenty of fluids. 

B. I have been gargling with warm salt water for my sore tongue. 

C. I have regular bowel movements on most days. 

D. I take a vitamin B12 tablet every day. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Vitamin B12 combines with intrinsic factor in the stomach and is then carried to the ileum, where it is absorbed into the bloodstream. 

Question 6112) 

A client who follows a vegetarian diet was referred to a dietician for nutritional counselling for anemia. Which client outcome indicates that the client does not understand nutritional counselling? The client: 

A. adds dried fruit to cereal and baked goods. 

B. cooks tomato-based foods in iron pots. 

C. drinks coffee or tea with meals. 

D. adds vitamin C to all meals. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Coffee and tea increase gastrointestinal motility and inhibit the absorption of nonheme iron. 

Question 6113) 

A client was admitted to the hospital with iron deficiency anemia and blood streaked emesis. Which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask in determining the extent of the client's activity intolerance? 

A. What daily activities were you able to do 6 months ago compared with the present? 

B. How long have you had this problem? 

C. Have you been able to keep up with all your usual activities? 

D. Are you more tired now than you used to be? 

Answer: A 

Explanation: It is difficult to determine activity intolerance without objectively comparing activities from one-time frame to another. 

Question 6114) 

Which position would most help to decrease a client's discomfort when the client's spouse injects vitamin B12 using the ventrogluteal site? 

A. Lying on the side with legs extended 

B. Lying on the abdomen with toes pointed inward 

C. Learning over the edge of a low table with hips flexed 

D. standing upright with the feet one shoulder-width apart 

Answer: B 

Explanation: To promote comfort when injecting at the ventrogluteal site, the position of choice is with the client lying on the abdomen with toes pointed inward. 

Question 6115) 

A client has fatigue, temperature of 99.5 degree F, dark bronze skin, and dark urine. Hemoglobin is 9 g/dL, hematocrit is 49 and red blood cells are 2.75 million/uL. What should the nurse do first? 

A. Initiate an intake and output record. 

B. Place the client on bed rest. 

C. Place the client on contact isolation. 

D. Keep the client out of sunlight. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The nurse should prepare to start an intake and output record because the client is exhibiting clinical manifestations of anemia with jaundice and is demonstrating a fluid imbalance. 

Question 6116) 

When a client is receiving a cephalosporin, the nurse must monitor the client for which finding? 

A. Drug-induced haemolytic anemia 

B. Purpura 

C. Infectious emboli 

D. Ecchymosis 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Drug-induced hemolytic anemia is acquired,antibody-mediated, RBC destruction precipitated by medications, such as cephalosporins, sulfa drugs, rifampin, methyldopa, procainamide, quinidine, and thiazides. 

Question 6117) 

A client is to have a Schilling's test. The nurse should: 

A. administer methylcellulose. 

B. start a 24 to 48 hour urine specimen collection. 

C. maintain nothing by mouth status. 

D. start a 72 hour stool specimen collection. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Urinary vitamin B12 levels are measured after the ingestion of radioactive vitamin B12. 

Question 6118) 

A client with pernicious anemia is receiving vitamin B12. The nurse should evaluate the client for which expected outcomes of vitamin B12? 

A. increased energy 

B. healed tongue and lips 

C. absence of paresthesias 

D. improved clotting time 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of vitamin B12, primary symptoms including neuropathy with paresthesias of hands and feet. 

Question 6119) 

The nurse is assessing a client's activity tolerance. Which report from a treadmill test indicates an abnormal response? 

A. pulse rate increased by 20 bpm immediately after the activity 

B. respiratory rate decreased by 5 breaths/min 

C. diastolic blood pressure increased by 7 mm Hg. 

D. pulse rate within 6 bpm of resting pulse after 3 minutes of rest 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The normal physiologic response to activity is an increased metabolic rate over the resting basal rate. 

Question 6120) 

In a postoperative client, the hematocrit decreased from 36% to 34% on the 3rd day even though the red blood cell (RBC) count and hemoglobin, value remained stable at 4.5 million/uL and 11.9 g/dL, respectively. The nurse should next: 

A. check the dressing and drains for frank bleeding. 

B. call the healthcare provider. 

C. continue to monitor vital signs. 

D. start oxygen at 2 L/min per nasal cannula. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The nurse should continue to monitor the client because this value reflects a normal physiologic response. 

11 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 

Question 6101) 

A client who is weak, dyspneic and jaundiced has a bilirubin level greater than 2 mg/100 mL blood volume. With which problem are these clinical findings consistent? 

A. Hemolytic anemia 

B. Pernicious anemia 

C. Decreased rate of red blood cell destruction 

D. Low oxygen carrying capacity of erythrocytes 

Answer: A 

Explanation: An elevated plasma bilirubin level could indicate an increased rate of RBC destruction (bilirubin is a product of free hemoglobin metabolism): the individual may have a hemolytic anemia (e.g. thalassemia major [Cooley anemia], glucose-6-phosphate). 

Question 6102) 

Packed red blood cells have been prescribed for a female client with a hemoglobin level of 7.6 g/dL and a hematocrit level of 30%. The nurse takes the client's temperature before hanging the blood transfusion and records orally. Which action should the nurse takes: 

A. Begin the transfusion as prescribed 

B. Administer an antihistamine and begin the transfusion. 

C. Delay hanging the blood and notify the health care provider. 

D. Administer 2 tablets of acetaminophen and begin the transfusion. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The client has a temperature higher than 100 degree F, the unit of blood should not be hung until the HCP is notified and has the opportunity to give further prescriptions. The HCP likely will prescribe that the blood be administered regardless of the temperature, or may instruct the nurse to administer prescribed acetaminophen and wait until the temperature has decreased before administration, but the decision is not within the nurse's scope of practice to make. The nurse needs an HCP's prescription to administer medications to the client. 

Question 6103) 

The nurse determines that a client is having a transfusion reaction. After the nurse stops the transfusion, which action should be taken next? 

A. Remove the intravenous line. 

B. Run a solution of 5% dextrose in water. 

C. Run normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate. 

D. Obtain a culture of the tip of the catheter device removed from the client. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: If the nurse suspects a transfusion reaction, the nurse stops the transfusion and infuses normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate pending further health care provider prescriptions. This maintains a patent IV access line and aids in maintaining the client's intravascular volume. The nurse would not remove the IV line because then there would be no IV access route. Obtaining a culture of the tip of the catheter device removed from the client is incorrect. First, the catheter should not be removed. Second, cultures are performed when infection not transfusion reaction, is suspected. Normal saline is the solution of choice over solutions containing dextrose because saline does not cause red blood cells to clump. 

Question 6104) 

Client has a prescription to receive a unit of packed red blood cells. The nurse should obtain which intravenous solution from the IV storage area to hang with the blood product at the client's bedside? 

A. Lactated Ringer's 

B. O.9% sodium chloride 

C. 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride 

D. 5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Sodium chloride 0.9% (normal saline) is a standard isotonic solution used to precede and follow infusion of blood products. Dextrose is not used because it could result in clumping and subsequent hemolysis of red blood cells (RBCs). Lactated Ringer's is not the solution of choice with this procedure. 

Question 6105) 

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a blood transfusion and is complaining of a cough. The nurse checks the client's vital sings, which include temperature of 97.2 degree F, pulse of 108 beats per minute, blood pressure of 152/76 mm Hg, respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute and an oxygen saturation level of 95% on room air. The client denies pain at this time. Based on this information, what initial action should the nurse take? 

A. Collect a urine sample for analysis. 

B. Place the client in an upright position. 

C. Compare current data to baseline data. 

D. Slow the rate of the blood transfusion. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: For the client receiving a blood transfusion, the nurse should monitor for potential complications of a transfusion. One of the complications is circulatory overload. Signs and symptoms of circulatory overload include cough, dyspnea, chest pain, wheezing on auscultation of the lungs, headache, hypertension,tachycardia and a bounding pulse, and distended neck veins. Based on the data in the question, the nurse should compare current data to baseline data. The nurse should also further assess the client for other signs and symptoms of circulatory overload. If the nurse still suspects this complication after comparing to baseline data, the nurse should then place the client in an upright position with the feet in a dependent position and slow the rate of the infusion. Collection of a urine sample should occur if the nurse suspects a transfusion reaction, such as a hemolytic reaction. 

Question 6106) 

A client with severe blood loss resulting from multiple trauma requires rapid transfusion of several units of blood. The nurse asks another health team member to obtain which device for use during the transfusion procedure to help reduce the risk of cardiac dysrhythmias? 

A. Infusion pump 

B. Pulse oximeter 

C. Cardiac monitor 

D. Blood-warming device 

Answer: D 

Explanation: If several units of blood are to be administered rapidly a blood warmer should be used. Rapid transfusion of cool blood places the client at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. To prevent this, the nurse warms the blood with a blood-warming device. Pulse oximetry and cardiac monitoring equipment are useful for the early assessment of complications but do not reduce the occurrence of cardiac dysrhythmias. Electronic infusion devices are not helpful in this case because the infusion must be rapid and infusion devices generally are used to control the flow rate. In addition, not all infusion devices are made to handle blood or blood products. 

Question 6107) 

A client had a mastectomy followed by chemotherapy 6 months ago. She reports that she is now "unable to concentrate at her card game" and "it seems harder and harder to finish her errands because of exhaustion." Based on this information, the nurse should suggest that the client: 

A. take frequent naps. 

B. limit activities. 

C. increase fluid intake. 

D. avoid contact with others.

 Answer: A 

Explanation: The client is likely experiencing fatigue and should increase her periods of rest. 

Question 6108) 

The nurse has just admitted a 35 year old female client who has a serum vitamin B12 concentration of 800 pg/mL. Which laboratory findings should alert the nurse to focus the health history to obtain specific information about drug or alcohol use? 

A. total bilirupbin, 0.3 mg/dL (5.1 umol/L) 

B. serum creatinine 0.5 mg/dL (44.2 umol/L) 

C. hemoglobin 16 g/dL (160 g/L) 

D. folate 1.5 ng/mL (3.4 nmol/L) 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Normal range of folic acid is 1.8 to 9 ng/mL. (4.1 to 20.4 nmol/L) and normal range of vitamin B12 is 200 to 900 pg/mL (147.6 to 664 pmol/L). 

Question 6109) 

Which lab values should the nurse report to the healthcare provider when the client has anemia? 

A. Schilling test result, elevated 

B. intrinsic factor, absent 

C. sedimentation rate , 16 mm/h 

D. red blood cells (RBCs) within normal range 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The defining characteristic of pernicious anemia, a megaloblastic anemia, is lack of the intrinsic factor, which results from atrophy of the stomach wall. 

Question 6110) 

The nurse is developing a teaching plan for the client with aplastic anemia. Which is most important to include the plan? 

A. Eat animal protein and dark green leafy vegetables every day. 

B. Avoid exposure to others with acute infections. 

C. Practice yoga and medication to decrease stress and anxiety. 

D. Get 8 hours of sleep at night and take naps during the day. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Clients with aplastic anemia are severely immunocompromised and at risk for infection and possible death related to bone marrow suppression and pancytopenia

10 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC - COVID

 

Question 6091) 

What does the 19 in Covid-19 stand for? 

A. It refers to the 19 molecules that make up the virus 

B. It is the 19th coronavirus identified since the WHO began naming them 

C. It is the year the virus was first encountered: 2019

D. It is the number of spikes protein of this coronavirus 

Answer: C 

Explanation: COVID-19 is the acronym for the full name coronavirus disease of 2019. The 19 is the designation of when the virus was identified. On December 31, 2019, a strange new pneumonia of unknown cause was reported to the Chinese WHO Country Office. A cluster of these cases originally appeared in Wuhan, a city in the Hubei Province of China. These infections were found to be caused by a new coronavirus which was given the name “2019 novel coronavirus” (2019-nCoV). It was later renamed “severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2,” or SARS-CoV-2 by the International Committee on Taxonomy of Viruses on February 11, 2020. It was named SARSCoV-2 because the virus is a genetic cousin of the coronavirus which caused the SARS outbreak in 2002 (SARS-CoV). 

Question 6092)

The nurse assessing the results of a Rinne test sees the notation of BC >AC. The nurse translates this to mean that the patient has:__________ 

A. Conductive hearing loss 

B. Sensorineural hearing loss 

C. Normal hearing 

D. Cochlear defect 

Answer: A 

Explanation: When the bone conduction (BC) is greater than the air conduction (AC), the results of the Rinne test will read, BC>AC, which means the patient has a conductive hearing loss. The normal finding for the Rinne test is that AC is greater than BC (AC>BC). 

Question 6093) 

What type of hearing loss is associated with otosclerosis? 

A. Sensorineural 

B. Conductive 

C. Permanent 

D. Temporary 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Otosclerosis usually causes a CONDUCTIVE hearing loss, a hearing loss caused by a problem in the outer or middle ear. Less frequently, otosclerosis may cause a sensorineural hearing loss Otosclerosis is the overgrowth of spongy bone in the middle ear that doesn't allow the bones of the middle ear to vibrate. Stapedectomy is the corrective surgery. 

Question 6094) 

A nurse is familiar with common neurotransmitters. He knows that levels fluctuate with certain diseases. Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT associated with depression?

A. Serotonin 

B. Dopamine 

C. Melatonin 

D. Norepinephrine 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Depression has been linked to problems or imbalances in the brain, specifically with the neurotransmitters serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine. Acetylcholine levels will increase when the client experiences depression. The three neurotransmitters implicated in depression are: Norepinephrine Serotonin Dopamine 

Question 6095) 

A nurse is able to handle multiple patients, yet seems to meet patient needs automatically. Others remark that the nurse's expertise comes naturally. The nurse manager determines this nurse is at which stage of Benner's Stage of Nursing Proficiency? 

A. Novice 

B. Advanced Beginner 

C. Competent 

D. Expert 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Additional notes: Patricia Benner - Novice 1. Beginner with no experience 2. Taught general rules to help perform tasks 3. Rules are context free, independent of specific cases, and applied universally 4. Rulegoverned behavior is limited and flexible 5. "Tell me what I need to do and I'll do it." Patricia Benner - Advanced Beginner 1. Demonstrates acceptable performance 2. Has gained prior experience in actual situations to recognize recurring meaningful components 3. Principles, based on experiences, begin to be formulated to guide actions Patricia Benner - Competent 1. Typically a nurse with 2-3 years experience on the job in the same area or in similar day to say situations 2. More aware of long-term goals 3. Gains perspective from planning actions based on conscious, abstract, analytical thinking and helps to achieve greater efficiency and organization Patricia Benner - Proficient 1. Perceives and understands situation as whole parts 2. More holistic understanding improves decision making 3. Learns experiences from what to expect in certain situations and how to modify plans Patricia Benner - Expert 1. No longer relies on principles, rules, or guidelines to connect situations and determine actions 2. Much more background of experience 3. Has intuitive grasp of clinical situations 4. Performance is now fluid, flexible, and highly-proficient 

Question 6096) 

To inflate the cuff of an endotracheal tube (ET) when the patient is on mechanical ventilation, the cuff pressure should be maintained at_______mmHg 

A. 10-30 

B. 20- 25 

C. 40 

D. 60 

Answer: B 

Explanation: 25-35 cm H2O and or 20-25 mmHg The volume to inflate the cuff varies with the ET and the patient's size. Cuff pressure should be maintained at 20 to 25 mm Hg. #INTEGRATED 20. A nurse pulls the curtains before changing the dressing of the surgical wound on the abdomen of a post-surgical client. What value is served? A. Dignity B. Freedom C. Altruism D. Accountability Answer: A The nurse values the dignity of the client and provides the client with privacy before changing the wound dressing. This incident does not serve the values of accountability, freedom, or altruism. A nurse values accountability when documenting nursing care accurately and honestly. The nurse values freedom when the client's right to refuse treatment is honored. The nurse shows value for altruism when showing concern for the client's welfare. 87 

Question 6097) 

A client has just been intubated for placement on a mechanical ventilator. What is the first assessment of the tube placement? 

A. Chest X-Ray 

B. Auscultation of breath sounds 

C. Pulse oximetry reading of 95% 

D. End tidal CO2 monitoring 

Answer: D 

Explanation: End-tidal CO2 monitors are currently recommended for rapid verification of ET placement. Auscultation for bilateral breath sounds and checking chest expansion also are used, but they are not as accurate as end-tidal CO2 monitoring. A chest x-ray confirms the placement but is done after the tube is secured. 

Question 6098) 

A balut vendor entered the gate of family Consuelo without notifying them. The dog bit the balut vendor. What is the MOST commonly affected site in the body of the balut vendor for rhabdo virus ? 

A. Hand 

B. Buttock 

C. Head 

D. Hands 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Head is the MOST targeted part of the Rhabdovirus. From the point of entry (usually a bite), the rabies virus travels along nerves to the spinal cord and then to the brain, where it multiplies. Once rabies attacks the central nervous system, it causes encephalitis (brain swelling). Inflammation surrounding brain blood vessels is often seen. Areas of the brain frequently targeted by the rabies virus are the hippocampus, limbic areas, medulla and cerebellum What is the cause of death in a patient positioned as depicted in the image below, who died during a prolonged rectal surgery? A. Positional asphyxia B. Traumatic asphyxia C. Aspiration of GI contents D. Smothering 

Question 6099) 

A nurse administer 2 units of packed RBCs (250 mL each) followed by 500 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride. How much total solution (blood and sodium chloride) has infused? A. 1000 ml B. 800 ml C. 600 ml D. 700 ml Answer: A Explanation: 1000 ml. Each bag of packed RBCs contains 250ml. for a total of 500 ml. of packed RBCs. The total amount of sodium chloride received is 500 ml. 500 + 500 = 1000 ml. of solution. Question 6100) A client is admitted with a higher than expected red blood cell count. What physiological alteration does the nurse will result from this clinical finding ? 

A. Increased serum pH 

B. Decreased hematocrit 

C. Increased blood viscosity 

D. Decreased immune response 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Viscosity, a measure of fluid internal resistance to flow, is increased as the number of red cells suspended in plasma increases.