Question 6271)
The client is to undergo kidney transplantation with a living donor. Which of the
following preoperative assessments is important
A. Urine output
B. Signs of graft rejection
C. Signs and symptoms of rejection
D. Client’s support system and understanding of lifestyle changes.
Answer: D
Explanation: Client’s support system and understanding of lifestyle changes because the client undergoing a renal
transplantation will need vigilant follow-up care and must adhere to the medical regimen. The client is most likely
anuric or oliguric preoperatively but postoperatively will require close monitoring of urine output to make sure the
transplanted kidney is functioning optimally. While the client will always need to be monitored for signs and
symptoms of infection, it’s most important post-op will require close monitoring of urine output to make sure the
transplanted kidney is functioning optimally. While the client will always need to be monitored for signs and
symptoms of infection, it’s most important postoperatively due to the immunosuppressant therapy. Rejection can
occur postoperatively
Question 6272) A male adult patient on mechanical ventilation is receiving pancuronium bromide
(Pavulon), 0.01 mg/kg I.V. as needed. Which assessment finding indicates that the patient needs
another pancuronium dose?
A. Leg movement
B. Finger movement
C. Lip movement
D. Fighting the ventilator
Answer: D
Explanation: the inj pancuronium bromide is a neuromuscular blocking agent and used for patients on ventilators
Question 6273) A client who is receiving streptokinase therapy suddenly had a nose bleeding. The
nurse ensures the availability in which of the following medication?
A. Vitamin K (Mephyton).
B. Deferoxamine (Desferal).
C. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar).
D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
Answer: C
Explanation: Aminocaproic acid (Amicar) because Bleeding can be reversed with the use of aminocaproic acid as an
antidote for streptokinase. Option A is the antidote for warfarin sodium toxicity. Option B is the antidote for iron
toxicity. Option D is an antihistamine that can be used for any allergic reaction.
Question 6274)
The clinic nurse notes that the physician has documented a diagnosis of herpes
zoster (shingles) in the client’s chart. Based on an understanding of the cause of this disorder, the
nurse determines that this definitive diagnosis was made following which diagnostic test?
A. Wood’s light examination.
B. Patch test.
C. Skin biopsy.
D. Culture of the lesion.
Answer: D
Explanation: Culture of the lesion. Because With the classic presentation of shingles, the clinical examination is
diagnostic. A viral culture of the lesion provides the definitive diagnosis. Herpes zoster is caused by a reactivation
of the varicella-zoster virus, the virus that causes chickenpox. Option A: In a Wood’s light examination, the skin is
viewed under ultraviolet light to identify superficial infections of the skin. Option B: A patch test is a skin test that
involves the administration of an allergen to the surface of the skin to identify specific allergies. Option C: A biopsy
would provide a cytological examination of tissue.
Question 6275)
What is the primary reason for administering morphine to a client with myocardial
infarction?
A. To sedate the client
B. To decrease the client’s pain
C. To decrease the client’s anxiety
D. To decrease oxygen demand on the client’s heart
Answer: D
Explanation: To decrease oxygen demand on the client's heart because primary purpose of morphine to decrease
the oxygen demand, although morphine also decrease pain and Anxiety while causing sedation but it isn't given
primarily for those reasons...
Question 6276)
During the client’s dialysis, the nurse observes that the solution draining from the
abdomen is consistently blood tinged. The client has a permanent peritoneal catheter in place.
Which interpretation of this observation would be correct?
A. Bleeding is expected with a permanent peritoneal catheter
B. Bleeding indicates abdominal blood vessel damage
C. Bleeding can indicate kidney damage.
D. Bleeding is caused by too-rapid infusion of the dialysate.
Answer: B
Explanation: Bleeding indicates abdominal blood vessel damage Because the client has a permanent catheter in
place, blood tinged drainage should not occur. Persistent blood tinged drainage could indicate damage to the
abdominal vessels, and the physician should be notified. Option C: The bleeding is originating in the peritoneal
cavity, not the kidneys. Option D: Too rapid infusion of the dialysate can cause pain
No comments:
Post a Comment