Question 5021)
Which of the following information is appropriate for a pregnant woman has a positive history of herpes but has no lesions during the present pregnancy?
A. You will be isolated from your newborn infant following delivery
B. She will be evaluated at the time of delivery for herpetic genital tract lesions and if lesions are present a cesarean section will be needed.
C. There is little risk to your newborn infant during this pregnancy birth and following delivery
D. Virginal deliveries can reduce neonatal infection risks even if you have an active lesion at birth.
Answer: B
Explanation: The women is evaluated for active genital herpes lesion at the time of delivery, and if lesions are present a cesarean delivery will be needed it is one of indications of the cesarean section.
Question 5022)
The gold standard for the treatment of hot flushes is .........
A. Oxytocin administration
B. Progesterone administration
C. Estrogen administration
D. Serotonin administration
Answer: C
Explanation: Decrease in level of estrogen in cause of hot flushes. Hot flushes mean sudden falling of warmth usually most intense over face, neck chest and profuse sweating. It commonly occurs due to menopause the gold standard for the treatment of hot flushes is estrogen administration.
Question 5023)
Which of the following is not true about pre-menstrual syndrome?
A. It occurs during the last half of menstrual cycle
B. It resolves with the onset of menstrual cycle
C. It occurs during the luteal phase
D. It resolves with the onset of ovulation
Answer: D
Explanation: Pre-menstrual syndrome (PMS) refers to physical and emotional symptoms that occur in the 1 to 2 weeks before menses physical symptoms include breast tenderness bloating and psychological symptoms include mood saving anger, it occurs in the last half of menstrual cycle (luteal phase) and typically ends with the of menstrual flow.
Question 5024) The nurse counts an adult’s apical heart beat at 110 beats per minute. The nurse describes this as:
A. asystole.
B. bigeminy.
C. tachycardia. D. bradycardia.
Answer: C
Explanation: Tachycardia in an adult is defined as a heart rate above 100 beats per minute. Asystole is cardiac arrest. There is no heartbeat. Bigeminy means that the heartbeats are coming in pairs. Bradycardia in an adult is defined as a heart rate of 60 beats or less per minute.
Question 5025)
A client has an elevated AST 24 hours following chest pain and shortness of breath. This is suggestive of which of the following?
A. Gallbladder disease
B. Liver disease
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Skeletal muscle injury
Answer: C
Explanation: AST is an enzyme released in response to tissue damage. The symptoms are suggestive of myocardial damage. AST rises 24 hours after a myocardial infarction. It will also rise when there is liver damage and skeletal muscle injury. This client has symptoms typical of myocardial infarction. Gallbladder disease may present with pain in the right scapula (shoulder blade) region but would not have an elevated AST.
Question 5026) An adult has a coagulation time of 20 minutes. The nurse should observe the client for which of the following?
A. Blood clots
B. Ecchymotic areas
C. Jaundice
D. Infection
Answer: B
Explanation: The normal clotting time is 9 to 12 minutes. A prolonged clotting time would suggest a bleeding tendency; the client should be observed for signs of bleeding, such as ecchymotic areas. Blood clots would occur with a clotting time of less than normal. Jaundice occurs with liver damage or rapid breakdown of red blood cells, such as is seen in sickle cell anemia. Infection occurs when there are too few white blood cells.
Question 5027)
A prothrombin time test should be performed regularly on persons who are taking which medication?
A. Heparin
B. Warfarin
C. Phenobarbital
D. Digoxin
Answer: B
Explanation: A prothrombin time test is done to determine the effectiveness of warfarin. A partial thromboplastin time test is done for persons taking heparin. Phenobarbital and digoxin do not require regular clotting tests. Serum levels of these drugs may be done if the client is on long-term therapy.
Question 5028) Which prothrombin time value would be considered normal for a client who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin)?
A. 12 seconds
B. 20 seconds
C. 60 seconds
D. 98 seconds
Answer: B
Explanation: When a client is receiving Coumadin, the prothrombin time should be 1.5 to 2 times the normal value, which is 11 to 12.5 seconds. Twenty seconds falls within that range. Twelve seconds is normal for someone who is not receiving Coumadin. Sixty seconds is normal for a partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test. Ninety-eight seconds on a PTT would be acceptable for a client who is receiving heparin. It should be 1.5 to 2 times the normal range of 60 to 70 seconds.
Question 5029)
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin. What drug should be readily available?
A. Vitamin K
B. Caffeine
C. Calcium gluconate
D. Protamine sulfate
Answer: D
Explanation: The antidote for heparin is protamine sulfate. Vitamin K is the antidote for Coumadin. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate. Caffeine is a central nervous system stimulant and will increase alertness and heart rate.
Question 5030)
An adult who is receiving heparin asks the nurse why it cannot be given by mouth. The nurse responds that heparin is given parenterally because:
A. it is destroyed by gastric secretions.
B. it irritates the gastric mucosa
C. it irritates the intestinal lining.
D. therapeutic levels can be achieved more quickly.
Answer: A
Explanation: Heparin is a protein and is destroyed by gastric secretions. It is given either intravenously or subcutaneously for that reason.
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