69 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC, GUJARAT NURSING EXAM

Question 5111) 

An adult is being treated with isoniazid (INH) and streptomycin for active tuberculosis. He is also receiving pyridoxine (vitamin B6). Why is this medication prescribed for him? 

A. Pyridoxine is bacteriostatic against Mycobacterium tuberculosis. 

B. To enhance his general nutritional status 

C. To prevent side effects of INH 

D. Pyridoxine acts to increase the effects of streptomycin. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) prevents the development of peripheral neuritis toxicity of INH. 

Question 5112) 

The wife of a client with active tuberculosis has a positive skin test for tuberculosis. She is to be started on prophylactic drug therapy. What drug is the drug of choice for prophylaxis of tuberculosis? 

A. Streptomycin 

B. Para-aminosalicylic (PAS) acid 

C. Isoniazid (INH) 

D. Ethambutol (Myambutol) 

Answer: C 

Explanation: INH is the drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis. All of the other drugs listed can be used in the treatment of tuberculosis. 

Question 5113) A farmer who has had a cough for several months has noticed a lack of energy lately. He is being tested for histoplasmosis. Which factor reported by the client would be most related to the diagnosis of histoplasmosis? 

A. He drinks raw milk. 

B. He cleans chicken houses 

C. He handles fertilizer frequently. 

D. He stepped on a rusty nail recently 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Histoplasma capsulatum is a fungus that grows in chicken and pigeon manure. Drinking raw milk might cause “milk fever.” Handling fertilizer could cause “white lung,” a COPD illness. Stepping on a nail might cause tetanus 

Question 5114) 

The nurse is caring for a client who is admitted with histoplasmosis. What drug is most likely to be prescribed for this client? 

A. Penicillin 

B. Chloromycetin 

C. Streptomycin 

D. Amphotericin B 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Amphotericin B is the drug of choice to treat histoplasmosis. 

Question 5115) An adult is to have a thoracentesis performed. What should the nurse do while preparing the client for this procedure? 

A. Keep him NPO for eight hours 

B. Prepare him to go to the operating room 

C. Explain the procedure to him 

D. Administer anticholinergic and analgesic as ordered 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The nurse should explain the procedure to the client and obtain a permit if one has not already been signed. Thoracentesis is usually done at the bedside. NPO is not necessary. Anticholinergics and analgesics are not ordered. 

Question 5116) The nurse is planning care for a client who has COPD. Which statement is the client most likely to say about activity tolerance? 

A. “The most difficult time of the day for me is the first hour after waking up in the morning.” 

B. “I feel best in the morning after a good night’s sleep. 

C. “I seem to have more energy after eating a big meal.” 

D. “I don’t know why, but I get my ‘second wind’ at night and don’t want to go to bed.” 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Morning is a difficult time for persons with COPD because secretions have accumulated during the night. They have to do a great deal of hacking and coughing to clear their air passages in the morning. The client with COPD is apt to be short of breath after a big meal because he is an abdominal breather. Most clients with COPD do not get a “second wind” at night. They need a lot of rest. 

Question 5117) 

The nurse is caring for a woman who is admitted with pneumonia. On admission, the client is anxious and short of breath but able to respond to questions. One hour later, the client becomes more dyspneic and less responsive, answering only yes and no questions. What is the best action for the nurse to take at this time? 

A. Stimulate the client until client responds 

B. Increase the oxygen from the ordered 6 L to 10 L. 

C. Assess the client again in 15 minutes 

D. Notify the charge nurse of the change in the client’s mental status. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The change in the client’s status is significant and indicates hypoxia. The charge nurse or physician must be notified quickly. Stimulating a severely hypoxic client is not appropriate. Increasing the oxygen from 6 L to 10 L is not likely to change the client’s status. The licensed practical nurse (LPN) should notify the charge nurse now, not in 15 minutes. 

Question 5118) 

A client’s PPD test is positive, and a chest x-ray is negative. What is the best interpretation of these data? 

A. The client’s resistance to tuberculosis is low. 

B. The client has been exposed to the organism but has not developed the disease. 

C. The client has tuberculosis, but it is not serious. 

D. The client has active tuberculosis 

Answer: B 

Explanation: A positive PPD test indicates antibodies against tuberculosis. A positive PPD test and a negative x-ray indicate that the client has been exposed to tuberculosis but has not developed the disease. These findings do not give information regarding the client’s resistance. The negative x-ray indicates that the client does not have active tuberculosis. 

Question 5119) 

An adult with tuberculosis has started taking rifampin (Rimactane). Which side effect is the client most likely to experience when taking this drug?

A. Reddish-orange color of urine, sputum, and saliva 

B. Erythema and urticaria 

C. Tinnitus and deafness 

D. Peripheral neuritis 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Rimactane (rifampin) causes body secretions to turn reddish-orange. Erythema and urticaria are not likely to be seen. Tinnitus and deafness are side effects of streptomycin. Peripheral neuritis is a side effect of isoniazid (INH). 

Question 5120) 

Which laboratory tests should the client receive before prophylactic drug therapy for tuberculosis is started? 

A. Serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 

B. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST; SGOT) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT; SGPT) 

C. Complete blood count (CBC) and hematocrit 

D. White blood cell (WBC) count and urinalysis 

Answer: B 

Explanation: AST (SGOT) and ALT (SGPT) are liver function tests. INH can cause liver toxicity. Serum creatinine and BUN are renal function tests and would test for toxicity to streptomycin or kanamycin. CBC and hematocrit might be indicated if bleeding or bone marrow depression were major expected toxicities. WBC and urinalysis might be indicted for urinary tract infections.