24 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC, GUJARAT NURSING EXAM

 

Question 6251) 

Knowing that malnutrition is a frequent community health problem, you decided to conduct nutritional assessment. What population is particularly susceptible to protein energy malnutrition (PEM)? 

A. Pregnant women and the elderly 

B. Under 5 year old children 

C. 1 to 4 year old children 

D. School age children 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Preschoolers are the most susceptible to PEM because they have generally been weared. Also ththe population who, able to feed themselves, are often the victims of poor food distribution. 

Question 6252) 

In the past year, Barangay A had an average population of 1655. 46 babies were born in that year, 2 of whom died less than 4 weeks after they were born. There were 4 recorded stillbirths. What is the neonatal mortality rate? 

A. 43.5/1000 

B. 27.8/1000 

C. 130.4/1000 

D. 86.9/1000 

Answer: A 

Explanation: On compute for neonatal mortality rate, divide the number of babies who died before reaching the age of 28 days by the total number of live birth, then multiply by 1,000. 

Question 6253) 

What number is used in computing general fertility rate? 

A. Estimated midyear population 

B. Number of registered live births 

C. Number of pregnancies in the year 

D. Number of females of reproductive age 

Answer: B 

Explanation: To compute for general or total fertility rate, divide the number of registered live births by the number of females of reproductive age (15-45 years) then multiply by 1000. 

Question 6254) 

You will gather data for nutritional assessment of a purok. You will gather information only from families with members who belong to the target population for PEM. What method of data gathering is best for this purpose? 

A. Census 

B. Survey 

C. Record review 

D. Review of civil registry 

Answer: B 

Explanation: A survey also called sample survey, is data gathering about a sample of the population. 

Question 6255) 

In the conduct of a census, the method of population assignment based on the actual physical location of the people is termed? 

A. De locus 

B. De jure 

C. De novo 

D. De facto 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The other method of population assignment, de jure is based on the usual place of residence of the people. 

Question 6256) 

The field Health Services and Information System is the recording and reporting system in public health care in the Philippines. The monthly Field Health Service Activity Report is a form used in which of the components of the FHSIS? 

A. Individual health record 

B. Tally report 

C. Output report 

D. Target/client list 

Answer: B 

Explanation: A tally report is prepared monthly or quarterly by the MHU personnel and transmitted to the Provincial Health Office. 

Question 6257) 

Civil registries are important sources of data. Which law requires registration of birth within 30 days from the occurrence of the birth? 

A. P.D. 651 

B. Act 3375 

C. Act 3573 

D. Act 3753 

Answer: A 

Explanation: P.D. 651 amended R.A. 3753 requiring the registry of births within 30 days from their occurrence. 

Question 6258) 

Which criterion in priority setting of health problems is used only in community health care? 

A. Modifiability of the problem 

B. Nature of the problem presented 

C. Magnitude of the health problem 

D. Preventive potential of the health problem 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Magnitude of the problem refers to the percentage of the population affected by a health problem. The other choices are criteria considered in both family and community health care. 

Question 6259) 

Which of the following women should be considered as special targets for family planning? 

A. Those who have two children or more 

B. Those with medical conditions such as anemia 

C. Those younger than 20 years and older than 35 years 

D. Those who just had a delivery within the past 15 months 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The ideal birth spacing is at least two years 15 months plus 9 months of pregnancy = 2 years. 

Question 6260) 

Freedom of choice is one of the policies of the family planning program of the Philippines. Which of the following illustrates this principle? 

A. Information dissemination about the need for family planning 

B. Support of research and development in family planning methods 

C. Adequate information for couples regarding the different methods 

D. Encouragement of couples to take family planning as a joint responsibility. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: To enable the couple to choose freely among different methods of family planning they must be given full information regarding the different methods that are available to them, considering the availability of quality services that can support their choice. 

Question 6261) 

A woman, 6 months pregnant came to the center for consultation. Which of the following substances is contraindicated? 

A. Tetanus toxoid 

B. Retinol 200,00 IU 

C. Ferrous sulfate 200 mg 

D. Potassium iodate 200 mg. capsule 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Retinol 200,00 IU is a form of megacose Vitamin A. This may have a teratogenic affect. 

Question 6262) 

During prenatal consultation, a client asked you if she can have delivery at home. After history taking and physical examination, you advised her against a home delivery. Which of the following disqualifies her for a home delivery? 

A. Her OB score is G5P3 

B. She has some pal mar pallor. 

C. Her blood pressure is 130/80. 

D. Her baby is in cephalic presentation.0 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Only women with less then 5 pregnancies are qualified for a home delivery. It is also advisable for a primigravida to have delivery at a childbirth facility. 

Question 6263) 

You are in a client's home to attend to a delivery. Which of the following will do first? 

A. Set up the sterile area. 

B. Put on a clean gown or apron. 

C. Cleanse the client's vulva with soap and water. 

D. Note the interval, duration and intensity of labor contractions. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Assessments of the woman should be done first to determine whether she is having true labor and if so what stage of labor she is in. 

Question 6264) 

In preparing a primigravida for breastfeeding, which of the following will you do? 

A. Tell her that lactation begins within a day after delivery. 

B. Teach her nipple stretching exercises if her nipples are ever ted. 

C. Instruct her to wash her nipples before and after each breastfeeding. 

D. Explain to her that putting the baby to breast will lesser blood loss after delivery. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Sucking of the nipple stimulates the release of oxytocin by the posterior pituitary gland. Which cause uterine contraction. Lactation begins 1 to 3 days after delivery. Nipple stretching exercises are done when the nipples are flat or inverted. Frequent washing dries up the nipples, making them prone to the formation of fissures. 

Question 6265) 

A primigravida is instructed to offer her breast to the baby for the first time within 30 minutes after delivery. What is the purpose of offering the breast this early? 

A. To initiate the occurrence of milk letdown. 

B. To stimulate milk production by the mammary acini. 

C. To make sure that the baby is able to get the colostrum. 

D. To allow the woman to practice breastfeeding in the presence of the health worker. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Sucking of the nipple stimulates prolactin reflex (the release of prolactin by the anterior pituitary gland.), which initiates lactation. 

Question 6266) 

In a mother's class, you discuss proper breastfeeding technique. Which is of these is a sign that the baby has "latched on" to the breast properly? 

A. The baby takes shallow, rapid sucks. 

B. The mother does not feel nipple pain. 

C. The baby's mouth is only partly open. 

D. Only the mother's nipple is inside the baby's mouth. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: When the baby has properly latched on to the breast, he takes deep,slow sucks, his mouth is wide open and much of the area is inside his mouth. And you're right. The mother does not feel nipple pain. 

Question 6267) 

You explain to a breastfeeding mother that breast milk is sufficient for all of the baby's nutrient needs only up to ________ . 

A. 3 months 

B. 6 months 

C. 1 year 

D. 2 year 

Answer: B 

Explanation: After 6 months, the baby's nutrient needs, especially the baby's iron requirement, can no longer be provided by mother's milk alone. 

Question 6268) 

Which biological used in Expanded Program on Immunization is stored in the freezer? 

A. DPT 

B. Tetanus toxoid 

C. Measles vaccine 

D. Hepatitis B vaccine 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Among the biological used in the Expanded Program on Immunization, measles vaccine and OPV are highly sensitive to heat, requiring storage in the freezer. 

Question 6269) 

Unused BCG should be discarded how many hours after reconstitution? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. At the end of the day Answer: B Explanation: While the unused portion of other biological in EPI may be given until the end of the day, only BCG is discarded 4 hours after reconstitution. This is why BCG immunization is scheduled only in the morning. 

Question 6270) 

A nurse is performing routine assessment of an IV site in a patient receiving both IV fluids and medications through the line. Which of the following would indicate the need for discontinuation of the IV line as the next nursing action? 

A. The patient complains of pain on movement. 

B. The area proximal to the insertion site is reddened, warm, and painful. 

C. The IV solution is infusing too slowly, particularly when the limb is elevated. 

D. A hematoma is visible in the area of the IV insertion site. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Rationale is First sign of phlebitis is pain along with IV cannula insertion site and redness over the area. The temperature of inflamed site is different from core body temperature. With these signs VIP(visual infusion phlebitis) score 2 is documented. At this score action required is respite of the IV cannula

23 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 

Question 6231) 

An opening of surgical wound edges is called : 

A. Wound evisceration 

B. Wound rupture 

C. Wound approximation 

D. Wound dehiscence 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Wound dehiscence is a surgical complication in which a wound ruptures along a surgical incision. It may be due to too tight suturing or loose improper suturing, sneezing, and coughing.-> Wound evisceration : surgical incision opens (dehiscence) and the abdominal organs protrude or come out of the incision. 

Question 6232) 

Severe generalized edema is called : 

A. Myxedema 

B. Pitting edema 

C. Anasarca 

D. Dependent edema 

Answer: C 

Explanation: 

When Edema is massive and generalized, it is called anasarca. It is caused by a variety of clinical conditions like heart failure, renal failure, liver failure or problems with the lymphatic system. -> The swelling mainly caused by abnormal retention of body fluids in extracellular space and body tissues. Due to this, Anasarca is also known as dropsy, massive edema or generalized edema. In Anasarca, the inflammation is widespread throughout the whole body. 

Question 6233) 

The classical substances that increasing the sensitivity of pain receptors by enhancing the pain provoking effects of bradykinin is : 

A. Nociceptor 

B. Endorphins 

C. Encephalin 

D. Prostaglandin 

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

High level of Prostaglandins are produced in response to injury or infection and cause inflammation, which is associated with the symptoms of redness, swelling, pain and fever. This is an important part of the body normal healing process. In contrast, Endorphins causes analgesic effect. 

Question 6234) 

The inflammatory/exudative phase of wound healing will last for : 

A. 1 year 

B. 1 - 4 days 

C. 21 days to a month 

D. 5 - 20 days 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The inflammatory/exudative phase of wound healing is form onset of wound to day 4. Healing actions in this stage include Clot formation to arrest bleeding, migration of inflammatory cells to the site of wound, neutralization of bacteria by macrophages and WBC and secretion of growth factors and cytokines. 

Question 6235) 

What is the most appropriate nursing intervention while treating a laceration ? 

A. Monitor blood pressure 

B. Elevate the body part 

C. Apply pressure dressing and heat 

D. Apply pressure dressing and ice pack 

Answer: D 

Explanation: For the management of Laceration, apply direct pressure over the wound to stop bleeding and apply ice on the wound every 15 to 20 mins. Ice helps prevent tissue damage and decreases swelling and pain. 

Question 6236) 

All of the following are organs of the lymphatic system Except? 

A. Tonsils 

B. Thymus 

C. Spleen 

D. Pancreas 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Lymphatic system is a network of very small tubes that drain lymphs fluids from all over the body. The major parts of lymph tissue are located in bone marrow, spleen, thymus, lymph nodes and tonsils. 

Question 6237) Immediate treatment of Anaphylaxis is : 

A. Adrenaline 

B. Benzylpenicillin 

C. Hydrocortisone 

D. Atropine 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Adrenaline or epinephrine is the immediate treatment of anaphylaxis. It will stimulate the alpha adrenoceptors and thereby it increase peripheral vascular resistance that leads to the improvement of blood pressure, reversing of peripheral vasodilation, coronary perfusion and it decreases angioedema. 

Question 6238) The nurse is caring for a child who is taking corticosteroids for systemic lupus erythematosus. The nurse carefully Monitors child's condition because the nurse is aware that corticosteroids can have what major action ? 

A. They increase liver enzymes. 

B. They can mask signs of infection. 

C. They cause bone marrow suppression. 

D. They decrease renal function. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Corticosteroids suppress the immune system, so the immune response to infection is diminished. It may mask or hide some signs and symptoms of infection. 

Question 6239) 

A rise of an existing antibody level in response to irrelevant stimulus is called: 

A. Anaphylactic reaction 

B. Anamnestic reaction 

C. Agglutination reaction 

D. Precipitation reaction 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Anamnestic reaction, also known as booster response, is a delayed immunologic response. Exposure to antigen in a sensitized individual results in massive production of existing antibody. Agglutination reaction is the process that occurs if an antigen is mixed with corresponding antibody. Anaphylactic reaction are life threatening reactions which exhibits symptoms such as generalized itching and hives, swelling, wheezing and difficulty breathing, fainting, and /or other allergy symptoms. Precipitation reaction refers to the formation of an insoluble salt when two solutions containing soluble salts are combined. 

Question 6240) 

Which of the following is a priority in planning care for a client with a diagnosis of immune deficiency ? 

A. Providing emotional support to decrease anxiety. 

B. Identifying factors that decreased the immune function. 

C. Encouraging discussion about lifestyle changes 

D. Protecting the client from infection. 

Answer: D Explanation: Immunodeficiency is state of diminished or absence of immune response that increases susceptibility to infection. Protecting the client from the infection is the priority while planning the care of patient with compromised immunity. 

Question 6241) 

The aim of immunosuppressive therapy is to : 

A. Stimulate the antibody production against foreign antigens. 

B. Suppress the production of antibodies against foreign antigens 

C. Promote phagocytosis 

D. All of the above 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The purpose of immunosuppressive therapy is to reduce the immune response to foreign antigens (infections) by supporting the production of antibodies against it. 

Question 6242) Which of the following diagnostic test is consider as a gold standard for confirmation of HIV infection? 

A. ELISA test 

B. Tri-dot test 

C. Western blot test 

D. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR test) 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Western blot is often used as a follow up test to confirm the presence of an antibody of HIV virus. This test is considered to be the gold standard for confirmation of HIV infection. 

Question 6243) 

Which of the following is an indicator of AIDS ? 

A. CD4 count lower than 1000 cells/mm3 

B. CD4 count lower than 600 cells/mm3 

C. CD4 count lower than 400 cells/mm3 

D. CD4 count less than 200 cells/mm3 

Answer: D 

Explanation: According to the CDC disease staging system, the definition of AIDS includes all HIV infected individuals with CD4 counts of <200 cells/uI as well as those with certain HIV related conditions and symptoms. 

Question 6244) 

The clinical symptoms of wasting syndrome is AIDS include : 

A. Involuntary weight loss 

B. Chronic diarrhea 

C. Protein energy malnutrition 

D. Esophageal candidiasis A. A,B,C B. B,C,D C. A,B,D D. A,B,C,D 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The symptoms of wasting syndrome in AIDS includes involuntary weight loss, diarrhea for at least a month, protein energy malnutrition, extreme weakness and fever that's not related to infection. Esophageal candidiasis is an opportunistic infection of esophagus by candida albicans. 

Question 6245) Which is the most common cancer associated with AIDS? 

A. Leukemia 

B. Adenocarcinoma 

C. Osteosarcoma 

D. Kaposi's sarcoma 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Kaposi's sarcoma is one of the first conditions recognized as an opportunistic sequela of HIV infection and remain the most common AIDS associated neoplasm. Non- Hodgkin lymphoma is the second most common AIDS related cancer. 

Question 6246) Winging of scapula is caused due to injury to which of the following parts? 

A. Ulnar nerve 

B. Thoracodorsal nerve 

C. Long thoracic nerve of bell 

D. Dorsal scapular nerve 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Injury to the long thoracic nerve causes serratus anterior paralysis is the most common cause for winging of scapula. Winging of scapula is a musculoskeletal disorder characterized by the protrusion of shoulder blade or shoulder bone, from a person's back in an abnormal position. 

Question 6247) 

Muscle of thigh present in anterior aspect: 

A. Rectus femoris 

B. Hamstring 

C. Deltoid 

D. Tibialis anterior 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The muscles present in the anterior aspect of the thigh and Sartorius, Quadriceps femoris, Rectus femoris and Particulars genu. Hamstring muscles are present at the back of thigh and knee. Deltoid muscle is the muscle of the scapular region and upper limb. Tibialis anterior is the muscle of the anterior compartment of the leg. 

Question 6248) 

The elbow is ......... to the wrist. 

A. Distal 

B. Anterior 

C. Posterior 

D. Proximal 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The elbow before the wrist means it is proximal to the wrist. 

Question 6249) 

Estimate the number of pregnant women who will be given tetanus toxoid during an immunization outreach activity in a barangay with a population of about 1,500: 

A. 265 

B. 300 

C. 375 

D. 400 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Estimate the number of pregnant women, multiply the total population by 3.5%. 

Question 6250) 

You are computing the crude death rate of your municipality, with a total population of about 18,000 for last year. There were 94 deaths. Among those who died, 20 died because of diseases of the heart and 32 were aged 50 years or older. What is the crude death rate ? 

A. 4.2/1000 

B. 5.2/1000 

C. 6.3/1000 

D. 7.3/1000 

Answer: B Explanation: The compute crude death rate divide total number of deaths by total population and multiply bi 1,000.

22 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 

Question 6211)

Nurse Ramesh is caring for a client receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells. The client started to vomit and to be nauseous. Client's blood pressure is 95/40 mm Hg from a baseline of 110/70 mm Hg. The client's temperature is 100.5 degree F orally from a baseline of 99.5 degree F orally. The nurse understand that the client may be experiencing which of the following? 

A. Circulatory overload. 

B. Delayed transfusion reaction. 

C. Hypocalcemia. 

D. Septicemia. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Septicemia happens with the transfusion of blood that is contaminated with microorganisms. Assessment includes rapid onset of high fever and chills, hypotension, nausea, diarrhea, vomiting and shock. 

Question 6212) 

Packed red blood cells have been prescribed for a client with low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. The takes the client's temperature before hanging the blood transfusion and records 100.8 F. Which action should the nurse take? 

A. Give an antipyretic and begin the transfusion. 

B. Proceed with the transfusion. 

C. Administer an antihistamine and begin the transfusion. 

D. Delay hanging the blood and inform the physician. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: If the client has a temperature higher than 100 F. The unit blood should be hung and delayed until the physician is notified and has the opportunity to give further order. Options A and C are incorrect since the administration of the medicine will need the physician's prescription. Option B: The decision to administer the blood is not within the scope of nurse practice. 

Question 6213) 

A nurse is caring for a client requiring surgery and is ordered to have a standby blood secured if in case a blood transfusion is needed during or after the procedure. The nurse suggest to the client to do which of the following to lessen the risk of possible transfusion reaction? 

A. Request that any donated blood be screened twice by the blood bank. 

B. Take iron supplement prior the surgery and eat green leafy vegetables. 

C. Do an autologous blood donation. 

D. Have a family member donate their own blood. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: A donation of the own blood is autologous. Doing this will prevent the risk of transfusion reaction. 

Question 6214) 

A client is receiving transfusion of one unit of cryoprecipitate. The nurse will review which of the following laboratory studies to assess the effectiveness of the therapy? 

A. Serum electrolytes. 

B. White blood cell count. 

C. Coagulation studies. 

D. Hematocrit count. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The evaluation of an effective response of a cryoprecipitate transfusion is assessed by monitoring coagulation studies and fibrinogen levels. 

Question 6215) 

Which of the following country is ready to register the first vaccine of Coronavirus on August 12 ? 

A. China 

B. Nepal 

C. Russia 

D. Japan 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Russia is ready to register the first vaccine of the coronavirus on August 12, Russia's Deputy Health Minister Oleg Gridnev made this announcement. This vaccine has been prepare under the joint aegis of Gamalaya Research Institute and the Ministry of Defence of Russia. 

Question 6216) 

The Indian Food Safety and Standards Authority (FSSAI) recently announced that the sale of junk food and unhealthy food should be banned within how many meters of schools and educational institutions? 

A. 50 meters 

B. 150 m 

C. 200 meters 

D. 100 meters 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) CEO Arun Singhal has banned the sale of junk food and unhealthy foods in schools and other educational institutions. Also, the FSSAI has banned the sale and advertisement of unhealthy food items within a 50 meter radius of school campuses. This step has been taken to ensure safety and nutritious food for school children. 

Question 6217) 

Which country's Prime minister Hassan Diab has recently announced his resignation? 

A. Lebanon 

B. Iran 

C. Iraq 

D. Japan 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Prime Minister Hassan Diab has announced his resignation after succumbing to the demands of the people after a powerful blast in the Lebanese capital Beirut. Lebanese President Michel Aoun has accepted the resignation of the entire government, including the Prime minister. However, the President has asked Hassan Diab to continue in office till the formation of a new government. People in Lebanon are blaming negligence and mismanagement for the blast. 

Question 6218) 

According to Prime minister Narendra Modi, there is a plan to construct a transshipment port in Great Nicobar Island at a cost of how many crores? 

A. 20,000 crores 

B. 10,000 crores 

C. 15,000 crores 

D. 12,000crores 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The Prime Minister said that Andaman and Nicobar is going to develop into a major center for port development activities in the coming time. The region is located at a much competitive distance compared to many transhipment ports in the world. Once this port is ready, big ships will also be able to stay here. This will increase India's share in maritime trade and will provide new employment opportunities to the youth. 

Question 6219) 

Recently which project for Andaman and Nicobar Island has been inaugurated by the Indian Prime Minister? 

A. Submarine cable connectivity project 

B. Hirakud Dam Project 

C. Pochampad Project 

D. Malaprabha Project 

Answer: A 

Explanation: According to the Prime Minister, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, due to its strategic importance,is going to develop as a maritime and startup hub and for this the government has highlighted such development initiatives. It will connect Port Blair to Swaraj Island. Little Andaman, Car Nicobar, Kamorata, Great Nicobar, Long Island and Rangat. This initiative will also promote tourism in these areas, which will also increase employment generation. 

Question 6220) 

Which state government announced the launch of Indira Van Mitan Yojana ? 

A. Bihar 

B. Punjab 

C. Chhattisgarh 

D. Rajasthan 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Chhattisgarh Chief Minister Bhupesh Baghel announced the launch of Indira Van Mittan Yojana on the eve of the International Day of Indigenous People. This is an initiative to support the forest dwellers of Chhattisgarh and achieve self sufficiency. The objective of this scheme is to provide self employment opportunities to 19 lakh families of scheduled areas of Chhattisgarh. The plan is to encourage the planting of fruit bearing trees and medicinal plants.

21 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 

Question 6201) 

A nurse is caring for a client with an impaired immune system. Which blood protein associated with the immune system is important for the nurse to consider? 

A. Albumin 

B. Globulin 

C. Thrombin 

D. Hemoglobin 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The gamma-globulin fraction in the plasma is the fraction that includes the antibodies. 

Question 6202) 

What is the priority nursing intervention for a client during the immediate postoperative period? 

A. Monitoring vital signs 

B. Observing for hemorrhage 

C. Maintaining a patent airway 

D. Recording the intake and output 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Maintenance of a patent airway is always the priority because airway obstruction impedes breathing and may result in death. 

Question 6203) 

What assessment of the pulse should the nurse identify when a client's on demand pacemaker is functioning effectively? 

A. Regular rhythm 

B. Palpable at all pulse sites 

C. At least at the demand rate 

D. Equal to the pacemaker setting 

Answer: C 

Explanation: On-demand pacing initiates impulses when the client's pulse rate begins to fall below the preset rate. A rate below this indicates malfunction of the pacemaker. 

Question 6204) 

A nurse identifies that the client understands information about vitamin K when the client states, Vitamin K is: 

A. found in a variety of foods, so there is no danger of deficiency. 

B. easily absorbed without assistance, so everything eaten is absorbed. 

C. rarely found in dietary foods, so a natural deficiency can easily occur. 

D. produced in sufficient amounts by intestinal bacteria, so metabolic needs are met. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: vitamin K is synthesized by intestinal bacteria but is also found in large quantities in green leafy vegetables. 

Question 6205) 

Nurse Seema is administering 2 unit packed RBC's on a client with a low hemoglobin. The nurse will prepare which of the following in order to transfuse the blood ? 

A. Microfusion set 

B. Polyvol Pro Burette set. 

C. Photofusion set. 

D. Tubing with an in-line filter. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The in-line filter helps ensure that any particles larger than the size of filter are caught in the filter and are not infused with the client. Option A is incorrect since the tubing that should be used is a macro drip. Option B is used for administration of IV medication infusion. Option C is incorrect since blood does not need any protection from light. 

Question 6206) 

To verify the age of blood cells in a blood. The nurse will check which of the following? 

A. Blood type 

B. Blood group 

C. Blood identification number 

D. Blood expiration date. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The safe storage of blood usually takes 35 days. Examining the expiration date is an important responsibility of a nurse prior hanging the blood. 

Question 6207) A client has an order to receive a one unit of packed RBC's. The nurse make sure which of the following intravenous solutions to hang with the blood product at the client's bedside? 

A. 0.9% Sodium chloride. 

B. 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride. 

C. Balanced multiple maintenance solution with 5% dextrose 

D. 5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 0.9% sodium chloride is a standard solution used to follow infusion of blood products. Option B, C, D : IV solution containing dextrose in water will hemolyze red cells. 

Question 6208) 

Nurse Jay is caring for a client with an ongoing transfusion of packed RBC's when suddenly the client is having difficulty of breathing skin is flushed and having chills. Which action should nurse Jay take first? 

A. Administer oxygen. 

B. Place the client on droplight. 

C. Check the client's temperature. 

D. Stop the transfusion. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The client in this situation is experiencing transfusion reaction so the priority action of the nurse is to first stop the transfusion. 

Question 6209) 

After terminating the transfusion during a reaction. Which action should the nurse immediately be taken next ? 

A. Run a solution of 5% dextrose in water. 

B. Run normal saline at keep vein open rate. 

C. Remove the IV line. 

D. Fast drip 200 ml normal saline. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The nurse will infuse normal saline at a KVO rate to keep the patency of the IV line while waiting for further orders from the physician. Option A: IV solution containing dextrose will hemolyze the red cells. Option C : The nurse will not remove the IV line because then there would be no IV access route. Option D: Doing a fast drip will potential lead to congestion and is not done without the physician order. 

Question 6210) 

A client is receiving a platelet transfusion. The nurse determines that the client is gaining from this therapy if the client exhibits which of the following? 

A. Less frequent febrile episodes. 

B. Increased level of hematocrit. 

C. Less episodes of bleeding. 

D. Increased level of hemoglobin. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Platelet transfusions may be given to prevent bleeding when the platelet count falls down. Option A: decline in the febrile episode will happen after the transfusion of agranulocytes. Option B: An increased level of hemoglobin and hematocrit will happen after the transfusion of red blood cells. 

20 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

Question 6191) 

What nursing action will limit hypoxia when suctioning a client's airway? 

A. Apply suction only after catheter is inserted. 

B. Limit suctioning with catheter to half a minute. 

C. Lubricate the catheter with saline before insertion. 

D. Use a sterile catheter for each suctioning episode. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The negative pressure from suctioning removes oxygen as well as secretions, suction should be applied only after the catheter is inserted and is being withdrawn. 

Question 6192) 

The arterial blood gases of a client with chronic obstructive a pulmonary disease (COPD) deteriorate, and respiratory failure is impending. For which clinical indicator should the nurse assess first? 

A. Cyanosis 

B. Bradycardia 

C. Mental confusion 

D. Distended neck veins 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Decreased oxygen to the vital centers in the brain results in restlessness and confusion. 

Question 6193) A nurse identifies that the client understands information about vitamin K when the client states, Vitamin K is : 

A. found in a variety of foods, so there is no danger of deficiency. 

B. easily absorbed without assistance, so everything eaten is absorbed. 

C. rarely found in dietary foods, so a natural deficiency can easily occur. 

D. produced in sufficient amounts by intestinal bacteria, so metabolic needs are met. Answer: D 

Explanation: vitamin K is synthesized by intestinal bacteria but is also found in large quantities in green leafy vegetables. 

Question 6194) 

A nurse is teaching a client how to use the call bell system. Which level of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs does this nursing action address? 

A. Safety 

B. Self-esteem 

C. Physiologic 

D. Interpersonal 

Answer: A 

Explanation: A call bell system enables the client to communicate with the staff and support safety and security,which is a second level need. 

Question 6195) 

Which nurse collaborates directly with the client to establish and implemented a basic plan of care after admission? 

A. Primary nurse 

B. Nurse clinician 

C. Nurse coordinator 

D. Clinical nurse specialist 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The primary nurse provides or oversees all aspects of care, including assessment, implementation and evaluation of that care. 

Question 6196) A pregnant client is now in the third trimester. The client tells the nurse, "I want to be knocked out for the birth." How should the nurse respond? 

A. You are worried about too much pain. 

B. You don't want to be awake during the birth. 

C. I can understand that because labor is uncomfortable. 

D. I will tell your health care provider about this request. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Paraphrasing encourages the client to express the rationale for this request. 

Question 6197) 

What should a nurse consider when trying to promote affective learning in a client with a newly diagnosed disease? 

A. Client's past experiences 

B. Client's personal resources 

C. Stress of the total situation 

D. Type of onset of the disease 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Past experiences have the most meaningful influence on present learning. 

Question 6198) 

What clinical finding does a nurse anticipate when admitting a client with an extracellular fluid volume excess? 

A. Rapid, thready pulse 

B. Distended jugular veins 

C. Elevated hematocrit level 

D. Increased serum sodium level 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Because of fluid overload in the intravascular space, the neck veins become visibly distended. 

Question 6199) A client reports vomiting and diarrhea for 3 days. What clinical finding will most accurately indicate that the client has a fluid deficit? 

A. Presence of dry skin 

B. Loss of body weight 

C. Decrease in blood pressure 

D. Altered general appearance 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Dehydration is most readily and accurately measured by serial assessments of body weight: 1 L of fluid weighs 2.2 lb. 

Question 6200) 

A nurse assesses a client's serum electrolyte levels in the laboratory report. What electrolyte in intracellular fluid should the nurse consider most important? 

A. Sodium 

B. Calcium 

C. Chloride 

D. Potassium 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The concentration of potassium is greater inside the cell and is important in establishing a membrane potential, a critical factor in the cell's ability to function.

 

19 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 

Question 6181) 

Trisomy 21 is otherwise called: 

A. Knifelter's syndrome 

B. Turner's syndrome 

C. Sickle cell anemia 

D. Down's syndrome 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Down's syndrome is also known as trisomy 21 is a genetic disorder caused by presence of all of a third copy chromosome 21 it is typically associated with physical growth delay. 

Question 6182) 

The nurse is aware that children born with a missing chromosome are most likely to have:

A. Cretinism 

B. Phenylketonuria 

C. Down syndrome 

D. Turner's syndrome 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Turner syndrome is genetic disorder that affects a girls development. The cause is a missing or incomplete x chromosome 45x 

Question 6183) 

After birth of a baby, breastfeeding should be started - 

A. Within 2 hours 

B. Within 1/2hours 

C. On second day 

D. After 1 week 

Answer: B 

Explanation: After birth of a baby, breastfeeding should be started within 1/2 hours. 

Question 6184) 

Increase in the size or mass of tissues, considered as: 

A. Growth 

B. Maturation 

C. Development 

D. Progress 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Increase in the size or mass of tissues, considered as Growth. 

Question 6185) 

Maturation of functions or skills in a child is known as : 

A. Growth 

B. Development 

C. Increment 

D. Progress 

Answer: B

Explanation: Maturation of functions or skills in a child is known as: Development 

Question 6186) 

At which age human fetus starts to secrete hormone thyroxine : 

A. 12th week of gestation 

B. 24th week of gestation 

C. 6th week of gestation 

D. 32nd week gestation 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Human fetus secretes thyroxine form 12th week of gestation. 

Question 6187) 

At which age size, of head reaches 90% of the adult head size: 

A. 2 years 

B. 4 years 

C. 6 years 

D. 8 years 

Answer: A 

Explanation: At a birth the head size is about 65-70% of the expected head size in adults 90% of the adult head size by the age of 2 year. 

Question 6188) Normal birth weight of a baby is : 

A. 2 kg 

B. 2 - 2.25 kg 

C. 2.5 - 3 kg 

D. 3 - 3.5 kg 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The average weight of a neonate is 3 kg in india child 2.5 kg - 3.5 kg is considered as normal. 

Question 6189) A client with upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding develops mild anemia. What should the nurse expect to be prescribed for this client? 

A. Epogen 

B. Dextran 

C. Iron salts 

D. Vitamin B12 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Iron is needed in the formation of hemoglobin. 

Question 6190) 

A client who is weak, dyspneic, and jaundiced has a bilirubin level greater than 2 mg/100 mL blood volume. With which problem are these clinical findings consistent? 

A. Hemolytic anemia 

B. Pernicious anemia 

C. Decreased rate of red blood cell destruction 

D. Low oxygen carrying capacity of erythrocytes 

Answer: A 

Explanation: An elevated plasma bilirubin level could indicate an increased rate of RBC destruction (bilirubin is a product of free hemoglobin metabolism): the individual may have a hemolytic anemia (e.g. thalassemia major [Cooley anemia], glucose-6-phosphate). 

18 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 

Question 6171) 

Immunity transferred to fetus from mother through placenta is: 

A. Active natural immunity 

B. Passive artificial immunity 

C. Passive natural immunity 

D. Active artificial immunity 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Passive immunity is the transfer of active humoral immunity in the form of readymade antibodies. Passive immunity can occur naturally, when maternal antibodies are transferred to the fetus through the placenta, and it can also be induced artificially, when high levels of antibodies specific to a pathogen or toxin. 

Question 6172) The drug of choice for eclampsia: 

A. MgSo4 

B. Prostodin 

C. Timplol 

D. Beta adrenergic blocker 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for preventing and treating convulsions in severe preeclampsia and eclampsia. Maintenance dose, Give 5g of 50% magnesium sulfate solution with 1 ml of 2% lignocaine in the same syringe by deep IM injection into alternate buttocks every four hours. Continue treatment for 24 hours after delivery or the last convulsion, whichever occurs last. 

Question 6173) The duration of puerperal period is: 

A. From delivery to 1 week 

B. Delivery to 4 weeks 

C. Delivery to 6 weeks 

D. Delivery to 10 weeks 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Puerperium is defined as the time from the delivery of the placenta through the first few weeks after the delivery. This period is usually considered to be 6 weeks in duration. By 6 weeks after delivery, most of the changes of pregnancy, labor and delivery have resolved and the body has reverted to the nonpregnant state. 

Question 6174) First fetal movement felt by the mother is called: 

A. Ballotment 

B. Quickening 

C. Lightening 

D. Kicking 

Answer: B 

Explanation: In pregnancy terms, quickening is the moment in pregnancy when the pregnant woman starts to feel or perceive fetal movements in the uterus. 

Question 6175) 

As per the latest WHO guidelines which dehydration status required ORS : 

A. mild dehydration 

B. Moderate dehydration 

C. Severe dehydration 

D. Any form of dehydration 

Answer: D 

Explanation: ORS is required any form of dehydration. 

Question 6176) 

Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy? 

A. Rubella 

B. OPV 

C. BCG 

D. Hepatitis 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Rubella vaccination is contraindicated during pregnancy. During mass immunization women of childbearing age against rubella, women unknowingly pregnant may be to evaluate the effects of rubella vaccination during pregnancy. 

Question 6177) 

The procedure of removal and ligation of Fallopian tube is referred as : 

A. Mastectomy 

B. Vasectomy 

C. Appendectomy 

D. Tubectomy 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Tubal ligation or tubectomy is a surgical procedure for sterilization in which a woman's fallopian tube are clamped and blocked or severed and sealed either of which prevents eggs from reaching the uterus for implantation. Tubal ligation is considered a permanent method of sterilization and birth control. 

Question 6178) The system of storing and transporting vaccines is termed: 

A. Cold chain 

B. Freezer chain 

C. Cool chain 

D. Vaccination 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The purpose of the vaccine "cold chain" is to maintain product quality from the time of manufacture until the point of administration by ensuring that vaccines are stored and transported within WHO recommended temperature ranges. This module provides guidance for workers at health facility level. 

Question 6179) What is the normal dilation of cervix? 

A. 20 cm 

B. 50 cm 

C. 7 cm D. 

10 cm 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The time of the onset of true until the cervix is completely dilated to 10 cm. 

Question 6180) 

The inflammation and degeneration of liver parenchyma is referred as: 

A. Cirrhosis 

B. Jaundice 

C. Colitis 

D. Cystitis 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The inflammation and degeneration of liver parenchyma is referred as cirrhosis

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Question 6161) 

Which among the following vaccine is stored in the freezer compartment? 

A. TT 

B. DPT 

C. Typhoid 

D. Measles 

Answer: D 

Explanation: In the refrigerator, OPV vails are stored in the freezer compartment (0-4 C) in the main compartment (4-10 C) BCG, measles and MMR are kept in the top rack (below the freezer) other vaccine like DPT, DT, TT, hepatitis A and typhoid are stored in the middle racks while hepatitis A and typhoid are stored in the middle racks, while hepatitis B, varicella and diluents are stored in the lower racks. 

Question 6162) 

Most preferred site of I/M injection in children is : 

A. Gluteal muscle 

B. Deltoid 

C. Lateral aspects of mid-thigh 

D. Ventrogluteal 

Answer: C 

Explanation: There are generally four sites that can be used to give an intramuscular injection. These are best muscle to use infants and small children is the vastus lateralis muscle in the thigh. 

Question 6163) 

The blood groups referred as universal donor is: 

A. O 

B. AB 

C. A 

D. B 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

At one time, Type O negative blood was considered the universal donor type. This implied that anyone - regardless of blood type - could receive type O negative blood without risking a transfusion reaction. But it's now known that even type O negative blood may have antibodies that cause serious reactions during a transfusion. And blood transfusions in general carry some risk of complications. 

Question 6164) 

During pregnancy complication of an infant delivered by cesarean section: 

A. Respiratory distress 

B. Hypothermia 

C. Hyperthermia 

D. Anemia 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

One of the biggest challenges a newborn faces after birth is the task of making a smooth transition to air breathing. This task is complicated by the fact that fetal lungs are full of fluid which must be cleared rapidly to allow for gas exchange. Respiratory morbidity as a result of failure to clear fetal lung is not uncommon and can be particularly problematic in some infants delivered by elective cesarean delivery (ECS). 

Question 6165) 

ICDS programmers was initiated related to mother and child is : 

A. 1965 

B. 1975 

C. 1985 

D. 1981 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme is world's largest community based programme. The scheme is targeted at children upto the age of 6 years, pregnant and lactating mothers and women 16-44 years of age. The scheme is aimed to improve the health, nutrition and education (KAP) of the target community. Launched on 2 October 1975, the scheme has completed 25 years of its operational age. The article describes in brief, the organisation, achievements and drawbacks of this national programme. It also suggests various thrust areas for its betterment and further improvement. 

Question 6166) 

The national health programmes related to mother and child is: 

A. Maternal and child health programme 

B. Child survival and safe motherhood programme (CSSM) 

C. Reproductive and child health 

D. All of the above 

Answer: D 

Explanation: All programme is related to mother and child 

Question 6167) 

Which formula is used for calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD)? 

A. Naegele's rule 

B. Infant formula 

C. Labor rule 

D. Rule of nine 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Naegele's rule is a standard way of calculating the due date for a pregnancy. The rule estimates the expected date of delivery by adding one year, subtracting three months, and adding seven days to the first day of a woman's last menstrual period(LMP). The result is approximately 280 days (40 weeks) from the start of the last menstrual period. Another method is by adding 9 months and 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period. 

Question 6168) 

Total number of bones in your body is: 

A. 208 

B. 206 

C. 204 

D. 200 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The skeleton of an human consists of 206 bones. It is composed of 300 bones at birth, which decreases to 80 bones in the axial skeleton (29 in the skull and 52 in the torso) and 126 bones in the appendicular skeleton (32x2 in the upper extremities including both arms and 31x2 in the lower extremities including both legs). Many small and variable supernumerary bones, such as some sesamoid bones, are not included in this count. 

Question 6169) 

Total number of chromosomes in your body is: 

A. 47 

B. 44 

C. 46 

D. 45 

Answer: C 

Explanation: In humans, each cell normally contains 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46. Twenty two of these pairs, called autosomes, look the same in both males and females. The 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, differ between males and females. Females have two copies of the X chromosomes, while males have one X and one Y chromosome. 

Question 6170) 

Bluish discoloration of the vagina is called: 

A. Hegar's sign 

B. Goodell's sign 

C. Chadwick's sign 

D. Rovsing' sign 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The vaginal walls have taken on a deeper color caused by the increased vascularity because of increased hormones. It is noted at the sixth week when associated with pregnancy. It may also be noted with a rapidly growing uterine tumor or any cause of pelvic congestion. 

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Question 6151) The nurse is reinforcing home care instruction to the mother of 10 year child with hemophilia. Which of the following activities does the nurse suggest that child safety participate friends: 

A. Basketball 

B. Swimming 

C. Cricket 

D. Hockey 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Children with hemophilia need to avoid contact sports and need to take precautions, such as wearing elbow and knee pads and helmets, when participating in other sports. The safest activity that will prevent injury is swimming. 

Question 6152) 

The husband of a client asks the nurse about the protein restricted diet ordered because of advanced liver disease. 

A. "The liver cannot rid the body of ammonia that is made by the breasdown of protein in the digestive system" 

B. "The magnesium hydroxide with your medication to lighten the urine color." 

C. "Most people have too much protein in their diets.| 

D. "Because of portal hyperemesis, the blood flows around the liver and ammonia made form protein collects in the brain collects in the brain causing hallucinations." 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Paracentesis involves the removal of ascetic fluid form the peritoneal cavity through a puncture made below the umbilicus. 

Question 6153) 

Immediately after cholecystectomy, the nursing action that should assume the highest priority is:

A. encouraging the client to take adequate deep breaths by mouth 

B. Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe 

C. Change the dressing quickly 

D. irrigate the T-tube frequently 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Pain in acute pancreatitis is caused by irritation and edema of the inflamed pancreas as well as spasm due to obstruction of the pancreatic ducts. 

Question 6154) 

After surgery, GIna returns form the Post-anesthesia Care Unit with a nasogastric tube in place following a gall bladder surgery. 

A. Call the physician immediately 

B. Administer the prescribed antiemetic 

C. Check the patency of the nasogastric tube for any obstruction 

D. Change the patient's position 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The client is showing signs of anxiety reaction to a stressful event. Recognizing the client;s anxiety conveys acceptance of his behavior and will allow for verbalization of feelings and concerns. 

Question 6155) 

Mr. Ramesh, diagnosed with Bladder Cancer, is scheduled for a cystectomy with the creation of an ileal conduit in the morning. He is wringing his hands and pacing the floor when the nurse enters his room. What is the best approach? 

A. Good evening, Mr. Ramesh. Wasn't it a pleasant day,today? 

B. Mr. Ramesh, you must be so worried. I'll leave you alone with your thoughts. 

C. Mr. Ramesh, you'll wear out the hospital floors and yourself at this rate. 

D. Mr. Ramesh, you appear anxious to me. How are you feeling about tomorrow's surgery? 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The client is showing signs of anxiety reaction to a stressful event. Recognizing the client's anxiety conveys acceptance of his behavior and will allow for verbalization of feelings and concerns. 

Question 6156) 

The husband of a client asks the nurse about the protein-restricted diet ordered because of advanced liver disease. What statement by the nurse would best explain the purpose of the diet? 

A. The liver cannot rid the body of ammonia that is made by the breakdown of protein in the digestive system. 

B. The liver heals better with a high carbohydrates diet rather than protein. 

C. Most people have too much protein in their diets. The amount of this diet is better for liver healing. 

D. Because of portal hyperemesis, the blood flows around the liver and ammonia made from protein collects in the brain causing hallucinations. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The largest source of ammonia is the enzymatic and bacterial digestion of dietary and blood proteins in the GI tract. A protein-restricted diet will therefore decrease ammonia production. 

Question 6157) 

Immediately after cholecystectomy, the nursing action that should assume the the highest priority is: 

A. encouraging the client to take adequate deep breaths by mouth 

B. Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe 

C. Changing the dressing at least BID 

D. Irrigate the T-tube frequently 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Cholecystectomy requires a subcostal incision. To minimize pain, client have a tendency to take shallow breaths which can lead to respiratory complication like pneumonia and atelectasis. Deep breathing and coughing exercises can help prevent such complications. 

Question 6158) 

A Sengstaken Blakemore tube is inserted in the effort to stop the bleeding esophageal varices in a patient with complicated liver cirrhosis. Upon insertion of the tube, the client complains of difficulty of breathing. The first action of the nurse is to: 

A. Deflate the esophageal balloon. 

B. Monitor VS. 

C. Encourage him to take deep breaths. 

D. Notify the MD. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: When a client with a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube develops difficulty of breathing, it means the tube is displaced and the inflated balloon is in the or pharynx causing airway obstruction. 

Question 6159) 

The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched on ___________ by the Government of India: 

A. 5th April 2003 

B. 12th April 2005 

C. 5th March 2005 

D. 5rh March 20006 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The government of India to address the health needs of underserved rural areas. Launched on 12th April 2005 by Indian Prime Minister Manmohan Singh, the NRHM was initially tasked with addressing the health needs of 18 states that had been identified as having weak public health indicators. The Union Cabinet headed by Dr. Manmohan Singh vide its decision dated 1 May 2013, has approved the launch of National Urban Health Mission as a Submission of an overarching National Health Mission, with National Rural Health Mission being the other submission of National Health Mission. 

Question 6160) Electrolyte need to be replaced in diabetic ketoacidosis is: 

A. Calcium 

B. Magnesium 

C. Sodium 

D. Potassium 

Answer: C 

Explanation: On average, patients with DKA may have the following deficit of water and key electrolytes per kg of body weight: free water 100 mL/kg, sodium 7-10 mEq/kg, DKA. The goal is to replace the total volume loss within 24-36 hours with 50% of resuscitation fluid being administered during the first 8-12 hours. 

15 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 

Question 6141) 

Of the following organelles, which group is involved in manufacturing : 

A. Lysosome, vacuole, ribosome 

B. Ribosome, rough ER, smooth ER 

C. Vacuole, rough ER, smooth ER 

D. Smooth ER, ribosome, vacuole 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Ribosome, rough ER, smooth ER 

Question 6142)

The lymphocytes which are associated with humoral immunity: 

A. T-Lymphocytes 

B. B-Lymphocytes 

C. Both A and B 

D. Neutrophils 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The humoral immunity is associated with B-lymphocytes and is responsible for destroying the pathogens by producing. 

Question 6143) 

Part of the blood carries minerals, vitamins, sugar and other foods to the body's cell? 

A. Plasma 

B. Platelets 

C. Red corpuscles 

D. White corpuscles 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Minerals, vitamins, sugar and foods to body cells are carried by Plasma of the blood. Explanation : Blood is composed of four different parts namely. Red blood corpuscles (RBC). White blood corpuscles (WBC). Platelets, Plasma. Each part of the cell is specific to certain functions. 

Question 6144) 

Select the statement about red blood cells that is incorrect: 

A. Mature red blood cells lack nuclei. 

B. Red blood cells contain hemoglobin. 

C. Deoxyhemoglobin carries oxygen. 

D. Red blood cells lack mitochondria. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Deoxyhemoglobin carries oxygen. 

Question 6145) 

The largest cells in the blood that leave the bloodstream to become macrophages are the: 

A. Eosinophils 

B. Monocytes 

C. Basophils 

D. Neutrophils 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Macrophages are formed through the differentiation of monocytes, one of the major groups of white blood cells of the immune system. When there is tissue damage or infection, the monocytes leave the bloodstream and enter the affected tissue or organ and undergo a series of changes to become macrophages. 

Question 6146) 

A person with eosinophilia, or greater than normal number of eosinophils is most likely suffering from : 

A. Allergies or internal parasites 

B. Anemia 

C. An autoimmune disease 

D. Diabetes 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Eosinophilia is a higher than normal level of eosinophils. Eosinophils are type of disease-fighting white blood cell. This condition most often indicates a parasitic infection an allergic reaction or cancer. 

Question 6147) 

Choose the correct order for the steps of hemostasis: 

A. Blood coagulation, platelet plug formation, blood vessel spasm 

B. Platelet plug formation, blood coagulation, blood vessel spasm 

C. Blood vessel spasm, platelet plug formation, blood coagulation 

D. Blood vessel spasm, blood coagulation, platelet plug formation 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Hemostasis includes three steps that occur in a rapid sequence: 1) vascular spasm, or vasoconstriction, a brief and intense contraction of blood vessels, 2) formation of a platelet plug, and 3) blood clotting or coagulation, which reinforces the platelet plug with fibrin mesh that acts as a glue to hold the clot together. Once blood flow has ceased, tissue repair can begin. 

Question 6148) 

Which clothing factor is related from damaged tissue and initiates a chain of clothing events? 

A. Prothrombin 

B. Thrombin 

C. Fibrin 

D. Tissue thromboplastin 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The extrinsic pathway begins with a substance called tissue factor released by damaged blood vessels and surrounding tissues. In the presence of other plasma proteins (clotting factors) and calcium ions,this leads to the activation of a protein called factor X. 

Question 6149) 

Erythroblastosis details also known as hemolytic disease of the newborn, most often occurs in _ mothers carrying _ fetuses: 

A. Rh+:Rh

B. Rh-:Rh+ 

C. Type A : type O 

D. Type B : type A 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Erythroblastosis details also known as hemolytic disease of the newborn, most often occurs in Rh- _ mothers carrying Rh+ _ fetuses. 

Question 6150) 

Most common Chemical that used as blood bank anticoagulant: 

A. EDTA 

B. Heparin 

C. Tri-Sodium Citrate 

D. Double Oxalate 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Tri-sodium Citrate is the anticoagulant of choice for coagulation studies because factor V and VIII are stable in citrate and integrity of other factors is also preserved. Historically 3.8% citrate was used and is still being used as an anticoagulant for blood collection in coagulation studies.