Dec 19, 2020

23 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 

Question 6231) 

An opening of surgical wound edges is called : 

A. Wound evisceration 

B. Wound rupture 

C. Wound approximation 

D. Wound dehiscence 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Wound dehiscence is a surgical complication in which a wound ruptures along a surgical incision. It may be due to too tight suturing or loose improper suturing, sneezing, and coughing.-> Wound evisceration : surgical incision opens (dehiscence) and the abdominal organs protrude or come out of the incision. 

Question 6232) 

Severe generalized edema is called : 

A. Myxedema 

B. Pitting edema 

C. Anasarca 

D. Dependent edema 

Answer: C 

Explanation: 

When Edema is massive and generalized, it is called anasarca. It is caused by a variety of clinical conditions like heart failure, renal failure, liver failure or problems with the lymphatic system. -> The swelling mainly caused by abnormal retention of body fluids in extracellular space and body tissues. Due to this, Anasarca is also known as dropsy, massive edema or generalized edema. In Anasarca, the inflammation is widespread throughout the whole body. 

Question 6233) 

The classical substances that increasing the sensitivity of pain receptors by enhancing the pain provoking effects of bradykinin is : 

A. Nociceptor 

B. Endorphins 

C. Encephalin 

D. Prostaglandin 

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

High level of Prostaglandins are produced in response to injury or infection and cause inflammation, which is associated with the symptoms of redness, swelling, pain and fever. This is an important part of the body normal healing process. In contrast, Endorphins causes analgesic effect. 

Question 6234) 

The inflammatory/exudative phase of wound healing will last for : 

A. 1 year 

B. 1 - 4 days 

C. 21 days to a month 

D. 5 - 20 days 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The inflammatory/exudative phase of wound healing is form onset of wound to day 4. Healing actions in this stage include Clot formation to arrest bleeding, migration of inflammatory cells to the site of wound, neutralization of bacteria by macrophages and WBC and secretion of growth factors and cytokines. 

Question 6235) 

What is the most appropriate nursing intervention while treating a laceration ? 

A. Monitor blood pressure 

B. Elevate the body part 

C. Apply pressure dressing and heat 

D. Apply pressure dressing and ice pack 

Answer: D 

Explanation: For the management of Laceration, apply direct pressure over the wound to stop bleeding and apply ice on the wound every 15 to 20 mins. Ice helps prevent tissue damage and decreases swelling and pain. 

Question 6236) 

All of the following are organs of the lymphatic system Except? 

A. Tonsils 

B. Thymus 

C. Spleen 

D. Pancreas 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Lymphatic system is a network of very small tubes that drain lymphs fluids from all over the body. The major parts of lymph tissue are located in bone marrow, spleen, thymus, lymph nodes and tonsils. 

Question 6237) Immediate treatment of Anaphylaxis is : 

A. Adrenaline 

B. Benzylpenicillin 

C. Hydrocortisone 

D. Atropine 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Adrenaline or epinephrine is the immediate treatment of anaphylaxis. It will stimulate the alpha adrenoceptors and thereby it increase peripheral vascular resistance that leads to the improvement of blood pressure, reversing of peripheral vasodilation, coronary perfusion and it decreases angioedema. 

Question 6238) The nurse is caring for a child who is taking corticosteroids for systemic lupus erythematosus. The nurse carefully Monitors child's condition because the nurse is aware that corticosteroids can have what major action ? 

A. They increase liver enzymes. 

B. They can mask signs of infection. 

C. They cause bone marrow suppression. 

D. They decrease renal function. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Corticosteroids suppress the immune system, so the immune response to infection is diminished. It may mask or hide some signs and symptoms of infection. 

Question 6239) 

A rise of an existing antibody level in response to irrelevant stimulus is called: 

A. Anaphylactic reaction 

B. Anamnestic reaction 

C. Agglutination reaction 

D. Precipitation reaction 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Anamnestic reaction, also known as booster response, is a delayed immunologic response. Exposure to antigen in a sensitized individual results in massive production of existing antibody. Agglutination reaction is the process that occurs if an antigen is mixed with corresponding antibody. Anaphylactic reaction are life threatening reactions which exhibits symptoms such as generalized itching and hives, swelling, wheezing and difficulty breathing, fainting, and /or other allergy symptoms. Precipitation reaction refers to the formation of an insoluble salt when two solutions containing soluble salts are combined. 

Question 6240) 

Which of the following is a priority in planning care for a client with a diagnosis of immune deficiency ? 

A. Providing emotional support to decrease anxiety. 

B. Identifying factors that decreased the immune function. 

C. Encouraging discussion about lifestyle changes 

D. Protecting the client from infection. 

Answer: D Explanation: Immunodeficiency is state of diminished or absence of immune response that increases susceptibility to infection. Protecting the client from the infection is the priority while planning the care of patient with compromised immunity. 

Question 6241) 

The aim of immunosuppressive therapy is to : 

A. Stimulate the antibody production against foreign antigens. 

B. Suppress the production of antibodies against foreign antigens 

C. Promote phagocytosis 

D. All of the above 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The purpose of immunosuppressive therapy is to reduce the immune response to foreign antigens (infections) by supporting the production of antibodies against it. 

Question 6242) Which of the following diagnostic test is consider as a gold standard for confirmation of HIV infection? 

A. ELISA test 

B. Tri-dot test 

C. Western blot test 

D. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR test) 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Western blot is often used as a follow up test to confirm the presence of an antibody of HIV virus. This test is considered to be the gold standard for confirmation of HIV infection. 

Question 6243) 

Which of the following is an indicator of AIDS ? 

A. CD4 count lower than 1000 cells/mm3 

B. CD4 count lower than 600 cells/mm3 

C. CD4 count lower than 400 cells/mm3 

D. CD4 count less than 200 cells/mm3 

Answer: D 

Explanation: According to the CDC disease staging system, the definition of AIDS includes all HIV infected individuals with CD4 counts of <200 cells/uI as well as those with certain HIV related conditions and symptoms. 

Question 6244) 

The clinical symptoms of wasting syndrome is AIDS include : 

A. Involuntary weight loss 

B. Chronic diarrhea 

C. Protein energy malnutrition 

D. Esophageal candidiasis A. A,B,C B. B,C,D C. A,B,D D. A,B,C,D 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The symptoms of wasting syndrome in AIDS includes involuntary weight loss, diarrhea for at least a month, protein energy malnutrition, extreme weakness and fever that's not related to infection. Esophageal candidiasis is an opportunistic infection of esophagus by candida albicans. 

Question 6245) Which is the most common cancer associated with AIDS? 

A. Leukemia 

B. Adenocarcinoma 

C. Osteosarcoma 

D. Kaposi's sarcoma 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Kaposi's sarcoma is one of the first conditions recognized as an opportunistic sequela of HIV infection and remain the most common AIDS associated neoplasm. Non- Hodgkin lymphoma is the second most common AIDS related cancer. 

Question 6246) Winging of scapula is caused due to injury to which of the following parts? 

A. Ulnar nerve 

B. Thoracodorsal nerve 

C. Long thoracic nerve of bell 

D. Dorsal scapular nerve 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Injury to the long thoracic nerve causes serratus anterior paralysis is the most common cause for winging of scapula. Winging of scapula is a musculoskeletal disorder characterized by the protrusion of shoulder blade or shoulder bone, from a person's back in an abnormal position. 

Question 6247) 

Muscle of thigh present in anterior aspect: 

A. Rectus femoris 

B. Hamstring 

C. Deltoid 

D. Tibialis anterior 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The muscles present in the anterior aspect of the thigh and Sartorius, Quadriceps femoris, Rectus femoris and Particulars genu. Hamstring muscles are present at the back of thigh and knee. Deltoid muscle is the muscle of the scapular region and upper limb. Tibialis anterior is the muscle of the anterior compartment of the leg. 

Question 6248) 

The elbow is ......... to the wrist. 

A. Distal 

B. Anterior 

C. Posterior 

D. Proximal 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The elbow before the wrist means it is proximal to the wrist. 

Question 6249) 

Estimate the number of pregnant women who will be given tetanus toxoid during an immunization outreach activity in a barangay with a population of about 1,500: 

A. 265 

B. 300 

C. 375 

D. 400 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Estimate the number of pregnant women, multiply the total population by 3.5%. 

Question 6250) 

You are computing the crude death rate of your municipality, with a total population of about 18,000 for last year. There were 94 deaths. Among those who died, 20 died because of diseases of the heart and 32 were aged 50 years or older. What is the crude death rate ? 

A. 4.2/1000 

B. 5.2/1000 

C. 6.3/1000 

D. 7.3/1000 

Answer: B Explanation: The compute crude death rate divide total number of deaths by total population and multiply bi 1,000.


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