62 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC, GUJARAT NURSING EXAM

 

Question 5041) 

A low-sodium, low-cholesterol, weight-reducing diet is prescribed for an adult with heart disease. The nurse knows that he understands his diet when he chooses which of the following meals? 

A. Baked skinless chicken and mashed potatoes 

B. Stir-fried Chinese vegetables and rice 

C. Tuna fish salad with celery sticks 

D. Grilled lean steak with carrots 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Chicken is lower in sodium than beef or seafood. Baking adds no sodium to the chicken. Barbecuing adds sodium and fat, and frying adds fat and usually sodium. Mashed potatoes contain little sodium. Chinese food is usually high in sodium. Tuna fish and celery are high in sodium. Steak and carrots are high in sodium. 

Question 5042) 

An adult client is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided congestive heart failure. Which assessment finding would most likely be present? 

A. Distended neck veins 

B. Dyspnea 

C. Hepatomegaly 

D. Pitting edema 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Dyspnea occurs with left-sided heart failure. Distended neck veins, hepatomegaly, and pitting edema are signs of right-sided heart failure. 

Question 5043) 

Digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix) are ordered for a client who has congestive heart failure. Which of the following would the nurse also expect to be ordered for this client? 

A. Potassium 

B. Calcium 

C. Aspirin 

D. Coumadin 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Lasix is a potassium-depleting diuretic. Digoxin toxicity occurs more quickly in the presence of a low serum potassium. Potassium supplements are usually ordered when the client is on a potassiumdepleting diuretic. There is no indication for supplemental calcium. Aspirin and Coumadin are anticoagulants and are not indicated because the client is taking Lasix and digoxin. 

Question 5044) 

When the nurse is about to administer digoxin to a client, the client says, “I think I need to see the eye doctor. Things seem to look kind of green today.” The nurse takes his vital signs, which are blood pressure = 150/94, pulse = 60 bpm, and respirations = 28. What is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse to take? 

A. Administer the medication and record the findings on his chart 

B. Withhold the digoxin and report to the charge nurse 

C. Request an appointment with the ophthalmologist 

D. Reassure the client that he is having a normal reaction to his medication 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Disturbance in green and yellow vision is a sign of digoxin toxicity. A pulse of 60 is borderline for digoxin toxicity. When there is any possibility of digoxin toxicity, withhold the medication and report to the charge nurse. Once a person takes digoxin, it stays in the system for nearly a week. The LPN will of course record the findings, but withholding the medication is essential. The client needs to have serum digoxin levels done and does not need to be seen by an ophthalmologist. Visual disturbances are a sign of digoxin toxicity, but these are not normal. 

Question 5045) 

An adult client is admitted to the hospital with peripheral vascular disease of the lower extremities. He has several ischemic ulcers on each ankle and lower leg area. Other parts of his skin are shiny and taut with loss of hair. A primary nursing goal for this client should be to do which of the following? 

A. Increase activity tolerance 

B. Increase activity tolerance 

C. Protect from injury 

D. Help build a positive body image 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Because the client has such poor blood supply to his legs, the nurse must be very careful to protect him from injury. Increasing activity tolerance might be desirable but is certainly not the primary nursing goal. Note that the question does not indicate that he has poor exercise tolerance. There are no data in the question to indicate that the client is anxious. He may need help in building a positive body image because his legs are disfigured, but this is certainly not a high priority 

Question 5046) 

An adult client who has peripheral vascular disease of the lower extremities was observed smoking in the waiting area. What is the most appropriate response for the nurse to make regarding the client’s smoking? 

A. “Smoking is not allowed for patients with blood diseases.” 

B. “Smoking causes the blood vessels in your legs to constrict and reduces the blood supply.” 

C. “Smoking increases your blood pressure and strains your heart.” 

D. “Smoking causes your body to be under greater stress.” 

Answer: B 

Explanation: This is an accurate answer that relates his behavior to his illness. All of the other statements are true about smoking but do not relate to his current health problem. 

Question 5047) 

An Adult client with peripheral Vascular Disease tells the nurse he is afraid his left leg is not improving and may need to be amputated. How should the nurse respond? 

A. “You and your wife should discuss your feelings before surgery.” 

B. “You sound concerned about your leg and possible surgery.” 

C. “It is better to have an amputation when the ulcers are not improving.” 

D. “You don’t need to be afraid of surgery.” 

Answer: B 

Explanation: This response opens communication and allows him to talk about his feelings. The other answers do not allow him to discuss his feelings with the nurse now. 

Question 5048) 

An adult is diagnosed with hypertension. He is prescribed chlorothiazide (Diuril) 500 mg PO. What nursing instruction is essential for him? 

A. Drink at least two quarts of liquid daily 

B. Avoid hard cheeses. 

C. Drink orange juice or eat a banana daily. 

D. Do not take aspirin 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Chlorothiazide (Diuril) is a potassium-depleting diuretic. Orange juice and bananas are good sources of potassium. It is not necessary to increase fluids to two quarts when the client is taking a diuretic. Hard cheeses should be avoided when the client is taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs). MAOIs are antidepressants. People who take Coumadin should not take aspirin. 

Question 5049) 

A low-sodium diet has been ordered for an adult client. The nurse knows that the client understands his low-sodium diet when the client selects which menu? 

A. Tossed salad, carrot sticks, and steak 

B. Baked chicken, mashed potatoes, and green beans 

C. Hot dog, roll, and coleslaw 

D. Chicken noodle soup, applesauce, and cottage cheese 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Chicken is low in sodium, as are mashed potatoes and green beans. Carrot sticks, steak, hot dogs, soup, and cottage cheese are all high in sodium 

Question 5050) 

A female client is admitted to the hospital with obesity and deep vein thrombophlebitis (DVT) of the right leg. She weighs 275 pounds. Which of the following factors is least related to her diagnosis? 

A. She has been taking oral estrogens for the last three years. 

B. She smokes two packs of cigarettes daily. 

C. Her right femur was fractured recently. 

D. She is 30 years old. Answer: D Explanation: Age is least related to DVT. Oral estrogens, smoking, and a broken leg are all risk factors for DVT.

61 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC, GUJARAT NURSING EXAM

 

Question 5031) 

An adult who is admitted for a cardiac catheterization asks the nurse if she will be asleep during the cardiac catheterization. What is the best initial response for the nurse to make? 

A. “You will be given a general anesthesia.” 

B. “You will be sedated but not asleep.” 

C. “The doctor will give you an anesthetic if you are having too much pain.” 

D. “Why do you want to be asleep?” 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Persons who are undergoing cardiac catheterization will receive a sedative but are not put to sleep. Their cooperation is needed during the procedure. Asking “why” makes the client defensive and is not appropriate for this client at this time. Give the client the information asked for. 

Question 5032) 

During the admission interview, a client who is admitted for a cardiac catheterization says, “Every time I eat shrimp I get a rash.” What action is essential for the nurse to take at this time? 

A. Notify the physician. 

B. Ask the client if she gets a rash from any other foods. 

C. Instruct the dietary department not to give the client shrimp. 

D. Teach the client the dangers of eating shrimp and other shellfish. Allergy to shellfish is indicative of an allergy to iodine. The dye used in a cardiac catheterization 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Allergy to shellfish is indicative of an allergy to iodine. The dye used in a cardiac catheterization occur. Because the exam is scheduled for the morning, the nurse should notify the physician immediately. The other actions might have relevance but are not essential (safety related) at this time. 

Question 5033) 

The nurse is preparing a client for a cardiac catheterization. Which action would the nurse expect to take? 

A. Administer a radioisotope as ordered. 

B. Give the client a cleansing enema. 

C. Locate and mark peripheral pulses. 

D. Encourage high fluid intake before the test. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: It is essential to monitor peripheral pulses after the procedure. They should be assessed before the procedure to determine location and baseline levels. An iodine dye is used during a cardiac catheterization, not a radioisotope. There is no need to give the client an enema. Fluids may be encouraged after the test. The client will be NPO for eight hours before the test. 

Question 5034) 

A young adult with a history of rheumatic fever as a child is to have a cardiac catheterization. She asks the nurse why she must have a cardiac catheterization. The nurse’s response is based on the understanding that cardiac catheterization can accomplish all of the following EXCEPT: 

A. assessing heart structures. 

B. determining oxygen levels in the heart chambers. 

C. evaluating cardiac output. 

D. obtaining a biopsy specimen. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: A biopsy specimen cannot be obtained during a cardiac catheterization. Heart structures can be assessed, oxygen levels in the heart chambers can be determined, and cardiac output can be measured during a cardiac catheterization 

Question 5035) 

When a client returns from undergoing a cardiac catheterization, it is most essential for the nurse to: 

A. check peripheral pulses. 

B. maintain NPO. 

C. apply heat to the insertion site. 

D. start range of motion exercises immediately. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Checking peripheral pulses is of highest priority. The complications most likely to occur are hemorrhage and obstruction of the vessel. The client is NPO before the procedure, not after. Cold may be applied to the insertion site to vasoconstrict. Heat vasodilates and is contraindicated because it might cause bleeding. Range of motion exercises might cause bleeding. The extremity used for the insertion site is kept quiet immediately following a cardiac catheterization. 

Question 5036) 

A male client with angina pectoris has been having an increased number of episodes of pain recently. He is admitted for observation. During the admission interview, he tells the nurse that he has been having chest pain during the last week. Which statement by the client would be of greatest concern to the nurse? 

A. “I had chest pain while I was walking in the snow on Thursday.” 

B. “We went out for a big dinner to celebrate my wife’s birthday, but I couldn’t enjoy it because I got the pain before we got home from the restaurant.” 

C. “I had chest pain yesterday while I was sitting in the living room watching television.” 

D. “I felt pain all the way down my left arm after I was playing with my grandson on Monday.” 

Answer: C 

Explanation: This answer indicates pain at rest, which suggests a progression of the angina. The other answers all indicate pain with known causes of angina, such as exercise, cold environment, or eating. 

Question 5037) 

The nurse responds to the call light of a client who has a history of angina pectoris. He tells the nurse that he has just taken a nitroglycerin tablet sublingually for anginal pain. What action should the nurse take next? 

A. If the pain does not subside within five minutes, place a second tablet under his tongue 

B. Position him with head lower than feet 

C. Administer a narcotic as needed (PRN) for pain if he still has pain in 10 minutes 

D. Call his physician and alert the code team for possible intervention 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Nitroglycerin can be given at five-minute intervals for up to three doses if the pain is not relieved. Positioning with head lower than feet increases cardiac workload and would make the client worse. PRN narcotics are not usually ordered for clients who have anginal pain. Nitroglycerin, a vasodilator, is usually the medication of choice. At some point, the physician will need to be called, but there is no need to alert the code team for possible intervention. 

Question 5038) 

The nurse is teaching an adult who has angina about taking nitroglycerin. The nurse tells him he will know the nitroglycerin is effective when: 

A. he experiences tingling under the tongue. 

B. his pulse rate increases. 

C. his pain subsides 

D. his activity tolerance increases 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Pain relief is the expected outcome when taking nitroglycerin. Vasodilation of coronary vessels will increase the blood supply to the heart muscle, decreasing pain caused by ischemia. Tingling under the tongue and a headache indicate that the medication is potent. His pulse rate should decrease when the pain is relieved. Increase in activity tolerance is nice, but nitroglycerin is given to relieve anginal pain. 

Question 5039) 

A client with angina will have to make lifestyle modifications. Which of the following statements by the client would indicate that he understands the necessary modifications in lifestyle to prevent angina attacks? 

A. “I know that I will need to eat less, so I will only eat one meal a day.” 

B. “I will need to stay in bed all the time so I won’t have the pain.” 

C. “I’ll stop what I’m doing whenever I have pain and take a pill.” 

D. “I will need to walk more slowly and rest frequently to avoid the angina.” 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Walking more slowly and resting decreases energy expenditure and prevents an attack. Answer 3 treats an attack. By the time he has pain, he is experiencing angina. To prevent angina, he needs to walk slowly and rest frequently. He should eat small, frequent meals—not one large meal. He should exercise within his tolerance level. Staying in bed predisposes the client to the complications of immobility, such as clots and pneumonia. 

Question 5040) 

A client who has been treated for angina is discharged in stable condition. At a clinic visit, he tells the nurse he has anginal pain when he has sexual intercourse with his wife. What is the best response for the nurse to make? 

A. “Do you have ambivalent feelings toward your wife?” 

B. “Many persons with angina have less pain when their partner assumes the top position.” 

C. “Be sure that you attempt intercourse only when you are well rested and relaxed.” 

D. “You might try having a cocktail before sexual activity to help you relax.” 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Reducing his physical activity reduces the cardiac workload. This response suggests a way that he can engage in sexual activity with minimum strain on the heart. Ambivalent feelings toward his wife are unlikely to cause anginal pain. There is some truth to being well rested and relaxed, but telling him that this is the only time he should have intercourse is not realistic. The nurse should not advise the client to have an alcoholic beverage before sexual activity. 

60 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC, GUJARAT NURSING EXAM

 

Question 5021) 

Which of the following information is appropriate for a pregnant woman has a positive history of herpes but has no lesions during the present pregnancy? 

A. You will be isolated from your newborn infant following delivery 

B. She will be evaluated at the time of delivery for herpetic genital tract lesions and if lesions are present a cesarean section will be needed. 

C. There is little risk to your newborn infant during this pregnancy birth and following delivery 

D. Virginal deliveries can reduce neonatal infection risks even if you have an active lesion at birth. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The women is evaluated for active genital herpes lesion at the time of delivery, and if lesions are present a cesarean delivery will be needed it is one of indications of the cesarean section. 

Question 5022) 

The gold standard for the treatment of hot flushes is ......... 

A. Oxytocin administration 

B. Progesterone administration 

C. Estrogen administration 

D. Serotonin administration 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Decrease in level of estrogen in cause of hot flushes. Hot flushes mean sudden falling of warmth usually most intense over face, neck chest and profuse sweating. It commonly occurs due to menopause the gold standard for the treatment of hot flushes is estrogen administration. 

Question 5023) 

Which of the following is not true about pre-menstrual syndrome? 

A. It occurs during the last half of menstrual cycle 

B. It resolves with the onset of menstrual cycle 

C. It occurs during the luteal phase 

D. It resolves with the onset of ovulation 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Pre-menstrual syndrome (PMS) refers to physical and emotional symptoms that occur in the 1 to 2 weeks before menses physical symptoms include breast tenderness bloating and psychological symptoms include mood saving anger, it occurs in the last half of menstrual cycle (luteal phase) and typically ends with the of menstrual flow. 

Question 5024) The nurse counts an adult’s apical heart beat at 110 beats per minute. The nurse describes this as: 

A. asystole. 

B. bigeminy. 

C. tachycardia. D. bradycardia. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Tachycardia in an adult is defined as a heart rate above 100 beats per minute. Asystole is cardiac arrest. There is no heartbeat. Bigeminy means that the heartbeats are coming in pairs. Bradycardia in an adult is defined as a heart rate of 60 beats or less per minute. 

Question 5025) 

A client has an elevated AST 24 hours following chest pain and shortness of breath. This is suggestive of which of the following? 

A. Gallbladder disease 

B. Liver disease 

C. Myocardial infarction 

D. Skeletal muscle injury 

Answer: C 

Explanation: AST is an enzyme released in response to tissue damage. The symptoms are suggestive of myocardial damage. AST rises 24 hours after a myocardial infarction. It will also rise when there is liver damage and skeletal muscle injury. This client has symptoms typical of myocardial infarction. Gallbladder disease may present with pain in the right scapula (shoulder blade) region but would not have an elevated AST. 

Question 5026) An adult has a coagulation time of 20 minutes. The nurse should observe the client for which of the following? 

A. Blood clots 

B. Ecchymotic areas 

C. Jaundice 

D. Infection 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The normal clotting time is 9 to 12 minutes. A prolonged clotting time would suggest a bleeding tendency; the client should be observed for signs of bleeding, such as ecchymotic areas. Blood clots would occur with a clotting time of less than normal. Jaundice occurs with liver damage or rapid breakdown of red blood cells, such as is seen in sickle cell anemia. Infection occurs when there are too few white blood cells. 

Question 5027) 

A prothrombin time test should be performed regularly on persons who are taking which medication? 

A. Heparin 

B. Warfarin 

C. Phenobarbital 

D. Digoxin 

Answer: B 

Explanation: A prothrombin time test is done to determine the effectiveness of warfarin. A partial thromboplastin time test is done for persons taking heparin. Phenobarbital and digoxin do not require regular clotting tests. Serum levels of these drugs may be done if the client is on long-term therapy. 

Question 5028) Which prothrombin time value would be considered normal for a client who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin)? 

A. 12 seconds 

B. 20 seconds 

C. 60 seconds 

D. 98 seconds 

Answer: B 

Explanation: When a client is receiving Coumadin, the prothrombin time should be 1.5 to 2 times the normal value, which is 11 to 12.5 seconds. Twenty seconds falls within that range. Twelve seconds is normal for someone who is not receiving Coumadin. Sixty seconds is normal for a partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test. Ninety-eight seconds on a PTT would be acceptable for a client who is receiving heparin. It should be 1.5 to 2 times the normal range of 60 to 70 seconds. 

Question 5029) 

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin. What drug should be readily available? 

A. Vitamin K 

B. Caffeine 

C. Calcium gluconate 

D. Protamine sulfate 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The antidote for heparin is protamine sulfate. Vitamin K is the antidote for Coumadin. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate. Caffeine is a central nervous system stimulant and will increase alertness and heart rate. 

Question 5030) 

An adult who is receiving heparin asks the nurse why it cannot be given by mouth. The nurse responds that heparin is given parenterally because: 

A. it is destroyed by gastric secretions. 

B. it irritates the gastric mucosa 

C. it irritates the intestinal lining. 

D. therapeutic levels can be achieved more quickly. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Heparin is a protein and is destroyed by gastric secretions. It is given either intravenously or subcutaneously for that reason. 

59 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC, GUJARAT NURSING EXAM

 

Question 5011) 

When performing a postpartum assessment on a patient a nurse notes the presence of clots in the lochia. The nurse examines the clots and notes that they are larger than 1 cm which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate: 

A. documents the finding 

B. notify physician 

C. reassess the client in 2 hours 

D. encourage increased oral intake of fluids 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The presence of blood clots larger than 1 cm is indicative of hemorrhage, which needs to be notified to the physician/gynecologist immediately. 

Question 5012) The main cause of venous thrombosis in puerperal women is............. 

A. increase viscosity of blood due to dehydration 

B. decreased viscosity of blood during labor 

C. stasis of blood in veins due to late ambulation 

D. increase intake of fat in diet 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Venous stasis in the lower limbs is caused by increased vein distensibility and the gravid uterus acting as a mechanical impediment to venous stasis and vascular damage are a triad of initiating factors for venous thrombosis. In addition, there are increased levels of most of the circulating clotting factors in preparation for placental separation. 

Question 5013) 

A woman is 37 weeks pregnant and she is bleeding profusely with no pain is suggestive of: 

A. Antepartum hemorrhage 

B. Unavoidable hemorrhage 

C. Accidental hemorrhage 

D. Concealed hemorrhage 

Answer: A Explanation: Women is 37 weeks pregnant and she is bleeding profusely without pain it is suggestive of antepartum hemorrhage (APH) bleeding from or into the genital tract after 24 weeks of pregnancy but the child birth is known as antepartum hemorrhage. 

Question 5014) A client is scheduled for a pap smear. The nurse provides instructions to the client regarding preparation for the test: 

A. the test can be performed during menstruation 

B. fluids are restricted on the day of the test 

C. the test is painless 

D. vaginal douching is required 2 hours before the test 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Vaginal douching is required 2 hours before the test as it will cleanse the cervix and prevent exfoliated or dead tissues in sample. 

Question 5015) A nurse needs to check the most important parameter if patient is on magnesium sulphate level is: 

A. urine output>30mlfhr 

B. presence of knee jerk reflex 

C. respiration is > 12 per minute 

D. blood pressure < 140/90 mm Hg 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Diminished/absence of deep tendon reflex is one of the earliest signs of magnesium toxicity when a patient receives MgSO4 therapy the nurse must assess deep tendon reflexes (knee jerk reflex) frequently information from DTRs will help nurses develop judgment about titrating the administration and prevent magnesium toxicity. 

Question 5016) Which one of the following anti-tuberculosis drugs cannot be given during pregnancy: 

A. Rifampicin 

B. Ethambutol 

C. Streptomycin 

D. INH 

Answer: C Explanation: Rifampicin INH and ethambutol are safe during pregnancy streptomycin can cause harmful effects in the fetus as it readily crosses the placental barrier. 

Question 5017) Two days after having a cesarean birth a client complains of pain in the right lag what should be the nurse's initial response? 

A. Apply warm soaks 

B. Massage the affected area 

C. Encourage ambulation and exercise 

D. Maintain bed rest and notify the practitioner 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Temporary nerve irritation or injury can occur with anesthesia which might cause leg pain after C - section it is usually resolved within a few days after rest. Applying warm soaks and massaging affected area is not recommended ambulation and post-natal exercise are encouraged as soon as possible but no an appropriate initial response to the complains of pain. 

Question 5018) First day of last menstrual period is October 19,2017. What is the expected date of delivery? 

A. July 12, 2018 

B. July 26, 2018 

C. August 12, 2018 

D. August 26, 2018 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Naegele's formula - add 9 calendar month and 7 days to LMP, LMP = 19/10/2017 + 9 month = 19/07/2018 + 7 days , so EDD = July 26, 2018. 

Question 5019) The nurse preparing to administer the Rubella vaccine to two days postpartum women. The nurse should caution the client to avoid : 

A. Sunlight for 3 days 

B. Scratching the injection site 

C. Scratching for 2 to 3 months after the vaccination 

D. Sexual intercourse for 2 to 3 months after vaccination 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Pregnancy needs to be avoided for 1 to 3 months as rubella is live vaccine which can give adverse effect on fetus. This is usually administered to the patient who are IgG NEGATIVE. 

Question 5020) Before a client with syphilis can be treated the nurse must determine the........... 

A. Portal of entry 

B. size of the chancre 

C. existence of allergies 

D. name of sexual contact 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Penicillin injection is the treatment of syphilis allergic reaction to the penicillin can be life threatening whenever the patient comes for the penicillin injection each time antibiotic sensitivity test is to be repeated and if skin reaction is positive for allergic reaction then the patient can be given alternative therapy as ceftriaxone or erythromycin. 

58 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC, GUJARAT NURSING EXAM

 

Question 5001) 

A common finding in most children with cardiac anomalies is: 

A. Metal Retardation 

B. Delayed Physical Growth 

C. Cyanosis and Clubbing of Fingertips 

D. A Family History of Cardiac Anomalies 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Oxygen is necessary for growth of cells. Decreased oxygen in the developing child causes a slow growth rate. 

Question 5002) 

A 6-year-old child with sickle cell disease is admitted with a pain crisis. Priority nursing concerns would be: 

A. Nutrition and Hydration 

B. Nutrition and Antibiotics 

C. Hydration and Pain Management 

D. Pain Management and Antibiotics 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Hydration is necessary to promote and maintain hemodilutation, pain in the area of involvement is a major problem in pain crisis and demands priority care. 

Question 5003) 

To control bleeding in a child with hemophilia A, the nurse would give: 

A. Blood 

B. Fresh Frozen Plasma 

C. Factor VIII Concentrate 

D. Factor II, VII, IX, X Complex 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Factor VIII is the missing plasma component necessary to control bleeding in hemophilia A. 

Question 5004) 

Breast is composed of: 

A. glandular tissues only 

B. connective tissues only 

C. connective and fatty tissues 

D. glandular and fatty tissues 

Answer: D 

Explanation: breast is composed of glandular tissues (special tissues which produces milk) and the collection of fats cells called as adipose tissues. 

Question 5005) The cause of change in size and appearance of breasts during pregnancy is: 

A. due to the secretion of estrogen and progesterone 

B. because of the weight gain 

C. due to increased metabolic rate that causes the breasts to become larger 

D. cortisol secreted by the adrenal 

Answer: A 

Explanation: the secretion of estrogen and progesterone causes the change in size and appearance of breasts during pregnancy. Weight gain cause stretching of breast, not a change in size and appearance. 

Question 5006) 

Hormone responsible for ovulation is: 

A. FSH 

B. LH 

C. Estrogen 

D. Progesterone 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Luteinizing hormone is a hormone produced by gonadotropic cells in the anterior pituitary gland. In females, an acute rise LH triggers ovulation and development of the corpus luteum. FSH is responsible for follicle maturation. 

Question 5007) Fleeting abdominal pain due to follicular bleeding causing peritoneal irritation is called as: 

A. corpus hemorrhagicum 

B. mittelschmerz 

C. Corpus luteum 

D. corpus albicans 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Minor bleeding from the follicle into the abdominal cavity may cause peritoneal irritation and fleeting lower abdominal pain it is known as mittelschmerz. After ovulation hemorrhage into the remains of the follicle usually occurs resulting in structure called a corpus hemorrhagicum. 

Question 5008) 

The hormone responsible for the menstrual cycle are: 

A. Gonadotropins 

B. Estrogen and progesterone 

C. Gonadotropins and estrogen 

D. Gonadotropins, estrogen and progesterone 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Gonadotropins (LH and FSH) released from anterior pituitary that stimulates the follicles in the ovary causing the maturation and then final release of the ovum. Growing follicles releases the estrogen and progesterone that causes the uterine cells hyperplasia and increase the endometrial thickness of uterus. 

Question 5009) The large amount of progesterone secreted during the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle is responsible for: 

A. the onset of ovulation 

B. the regulation of menstruation 

C. the incidence of capillary fragility 

D. sustaining the thick endometrium of the uterus 

Answer: D 

Explanation: progesterone is important hormone that condition the endometrium by sustaining the thick endometrium in preparation for implantation of a fertilized ovum progesterone prepares the uterus for receiving the fertilized ovum. 

Question 5010) A prenatal client with a history of heart disease has been instructed on care at home. Which statement if made by the client would indicate that the client understands her needs. 

A. there is no restriction on people who visit me

B. I should avoid stressful 

C. my weight gain is not important 

D. I should rest on my right side 

Answer: B 

Explanation: A prenatal client who has a history of heart disease should be instructed to avoid stressful situations which can aggravate the sympathetic nervous system thereby increasing the risk for acute cardiac emergency remaining statements are related to healthy practices but do not directly give idea about patients understanding regarding heart disease

25 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC, GUJARAT NURSING EXAM

 

        

Question 6271) 

The client is to undergo kidney transplantation with a living donor. Which of the following preoperative assessments is important 

A. Urine output 

B. Signs of graft rejection 

C. Signs and symptoms of rejection 

D. Client’s support system and understanding of lifestyle changes. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Client’s support system and understanding of lifestyle changes because the client undergoing a renal transplantation will need vigilant follow-up care and must adhere to the medical regimen. The client is most likely anuric or oliguric preoperatively but postoperatively will require close monitoring of urine output to make sure the transplanted kidney is functioning optimally. While the client will always need to be monitored for signs and symptoms of infection, it’s most important post-op will require close monitoring of urine output to make sure the transplanted kidney is functioning optimally. While the client will always need to be monitored for signs and symptoms of infection, it’s most important postoperatively due to the immunosuppressant therapy. Rejection can occur postoperatively 

Question 6272) A male adult patient on mechanical ventilation is receiving pancuronium bromide (Pavulon), 0.01 mg/kg I.V. as needed. Which assessment finding indicates that the patient needs another pancuronium dose? 

A. Leg movement 

B. Finger movement 

C. Lip movement 

D. Fighting the ventilator 

Answer: D 

Explanation: the inj pancuronium bromide is a neuromuscular blocking agent and used for patients on ventilators 

Question 6273) A client who is receiving streptokinase therapy suddenly had a nose bleeding. The nurse ensures the availability in which of the following medication? 

A. Vitamin K (Mephyton). 

B. Deferoxamine (Desferal). 

C. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar). 

D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl). 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Aminocaproic acid (Amicar) because Bleeding can be reversed with the use of aminocaproic acid as an antidote for streptokinase. Option A is the antidote for warfarin sodium toxicity. Option B is the antidote for iron toxicity. Option D is an antihistamine that can be used for any allergic reaction. 

Question 6274) 

The clinic nurse notes that the physician has documented a diagnosis of herpes zoster (shingles) in the client’s chart. Based on an understanding of the cause of this disorder, the nurse determines that this definitive diagnosis was made following which diagnostic test? 

A. Wood’s light examination. 

B. Patch test. 

C. Skin biopsy. 

D. Culture of the lesion. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Culture of the lesion. Because With the classic presentation of shingles, the clinical examination is diagnostic. A viral culture of the lesion provides the definitive diagnosis. Herpes zoster is caused by a reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the virus that causes chickenpox. Option A: In a Wood’s light examination, the skin is viewed under ultraviolet light to identify superficial infections of the skin. Option B: A patch test is a skin test that involves the administration of an allergen to the surface of the skin to identify specific allergies. Option C: A biopsy would provide a cytological examination of tissue. 

Question 6275) 

What is the primary reason for administering morphine to a client with myocardial infarction? 

A. To sedate the client 

B. To decrease the client’s pain 

C. To decrease the client’s anxiety 

D. To decrease oxygen demand on the client’s heart 

Answer: D 

Explanation: To decrease oxygen demand on the client's heart because primary purpose of morphine to decrease the oxygen demand, although morphine also decrease pain and Anxiety while causing sedation but it isn't given primarily for those reasons... 

Question 6276) 

During the client’s dialysis, the nurse observes that the solution draining from the abdomen is consistently blood tinged. The client has a permanent peritoneal catheter in place. Which interpretation of this observation would be correct? 

A. Bleeding is expected with a permanent peritoneal catheter 

B. Bleeding indicates abdominal blood vessel damage 

C. Bleeding can indicate kidney damage. 

D. Bleeding is caused by too-rapid infusion of the dialysate. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Bleeding indicates abdominal blood vessel damage Because the client has a permanent catheter in place, blood tinged drainage should not occur. Persistent blood tinged drainage could indicate damage to the abdominal vessels, and the physician should be notified. Option C: The bleeding is originating in the peritoneal cavity, not the kidneys. Option D: Too rapid infusion of the dialysate can cause pain

24 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC, GUJARAT NURSING EXAM

 

Question 6251) 

Knowing that malnutrition is a frequent community health problem, you decided to conduct nutritional assessment. What population is particularly susceptible to protein energy malnutrition (PEM)? 

A. Pregnant women and the elderly 

B. Under 5 year old children 

C. 1 to 4 year old children 

D. School age children 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Preschoolers are the most susceptible to PEM because they have generally been weared. Also ththe population who, able to feed themselves, are often the victims of poor food distribution. 

Question 6252) 

In the past year, Barangay A had an average population of 1655. 46 babies were born in that year, 2 of whom died less than 4 weeks after they were born. There were 4 recorded stillbirths. What is the neonatal mortality rate? 

A. 43.5/1000 

B. 27.8/1000 

C. 130.4/1000 

D. 86.9/1000 

Answer: A 

Explanation: On compute for neonatal mortality rate, divide the number of babies who died before reaching the age of 28 days by the total number of live birth, then multiply by 1,000. 

Question 6253) 

What number is used in computing general fertility rate? 

A. Estimated midyear population 

B. Number of registered live births 

C. Number of pregnancies in the year 

D. Number of females of reproductive age 

Answer: B 

Explanation: To compute for general or total fertility rate, divide the number of registered live births by the number of females of reproductive age (15-45 years) then multiply by 1000. 

Question 6254) 

You will gather data for nutritional assessment of a purok. You will gather information only from families with members who belong to the target population for PEM. What method of data gathering is best for this purpose? 

A. Census 

B. Survey 

C. Record review 

D. Review of civil registry 

Answer: B 

Explanation: A survey also called sample survey, is data gathering about a sample of the population. 

Question 6255) 

In the conduct of a census, the method of population assignment based on the actual physical location of the people is termed? 

A. De locus 

B. De jure 

C. De novo 

D. De facto 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The other method of population assignment, de jure is based on the usual place of residence of the people. 

Question 6256) 

The field Health Services and Information System is the recording and reporting system in public health care in the Philippines. The monthly Field Health Service Activity Report is a form used in which of the components of the FHSIS? 

A. Individual health record 

B. Tally report 

C. Output report 

D. Target/client list 

Answer: B 

Explanation: A tally report is prepared monthly or quarterly by the MHU personnel and transmitted to the Provincial Health Office. 

Question 6257) 

Civil registries are important sources of data. Which law requires registration of birth within 30 days from the occurrence of the birth? 

A. P.D. 651 

B. Act 3375 

C. Act 3573 

D. Act 3753 

Answer: A 

Explanation: P.D. 651 amended R.A. 3753 requiring the registry of births within 30 days from their occurrence. 

Question 6258) 

Which criterion in priority setting of health problems is used only in community health care? 

A. Modifiability of the problem 

B. Nature of the problem presented 

C. Magnitude of the health problem 

D. Preventive potential of the health problem 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Magnitude of the problem refers to the percentage of the population affected by a health problem. The other choices are criteria considered in both family and community health care. 

Question 6259) 

Which of the following women should be considered as special targets for family planning? 

A. Those who have two children or more 

B. Those with medical conditions such as anemia 

C. Those younger than 20 years and older than 35 years 

D. Those who just had a delivery within the past 15 months 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The ideal birth spacing is at least two years 15 months plus 9 months of pregnancy = 2 years. 

Question 6260) 

Freedom of choice is one of the policies of the family planning program of the Philippines. Which of the following illustrates this principle? 

A. Information dissemination about the need for family planning 

B. Support of research and development in family planning methods 

C. Adequate information for couples regarding the different methods 

D. Encouragement of couples to take family planning as a joint responsibility. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: To enable the couple to choose freely among different methods of family planning they must be given full information regarding the different methods that are available to them, considering the availability of quality services that can support their choice. 

Question 6261) 

A woman, 6 months pregnant came to the center for consultation. Which of the following substances is contraindicated? 

A. Tetanus toxoid 

B. Retinol 200,00 IU 

C. Ferrous sulfate 200 mg 

D. Potassium iodate 200 mg. capsule 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Retinol 200,00 IU is a form of megacose Vitamin A. This may have a teratogenic affect. 

Question 6262) 

During prenatal consultation, a client asked you if she can have delivery at home. After history taking and physical examination, you advised her against a home delivery. Which of the following disqualifies her for a home delivery? 

A. Her OB score is G5P3 

B. She has some pal mar pallor. 

C. Her blood pressure is 130/80. 

D. Her baby is in cephalic presentation.0 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Only women with less then 5 pregnancies are qualified for a home delivery. It is also advisable for a primigravida to have delivery at a childbirth facility. 

Question 6263) 

You are in a client's home to attend to a delivery. Which of the following will do first? 

A. Set up the sterile area. 

B. Put on a clean gown or apron. 

C. Cleanse the client's vulva with soap and water. 

D. Note the interval, duration and intensity of labor contractions. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Assessments of the woman should be done first to determine whether she is having true labor and if so what stage of labor she is in. 

Question 6264) 

In preparing a primigravida for breastfeeding, which of the following will you do? 

A. Tell her that lactation begins within a day after delivery. 

B. Teach her nipple stretching exercises if her nipples are ever ted. 

C. Instruct her to wash her nipples before and after each breastfeeding. 

D. Explain to her that putting the baby to breast will lesser blood loss after delivery. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Sucking of the nipple stimulates the release of oxytocin by the posterior pituitary gland. Which cause uterine contraction. Lactation begins 1 to 3 days after delivery. Nipple stretching exercises are done when the nipples are flat or inverted. Frequent washing dries up the nipples, making them prone to the formation of fissures. 

Question 6265) 

A primigravida is instructed to offer her breast to the baby for the first time within 30 minutes after delivery. What is the purpose of offering the breast this early? 

A. To initiate the occurrence of milk letdown. 

B. To stimulate milk production by the mammary acini. 

C. To make sure that the baby is able to get the colostrum. 

D. To allow the woman to practice breastfeeding in the presence of the health worker. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Sucking of the nipple stimulates prolactin reflex (the release of prolactin by the anterior pituitary gland.), which initiates lactation. 

Question 6266) 

In a mother's class, you discuss proper breastfeeding technique. Which is of these is a sign that the baby has "latched on" to the breast properly? 

A. The baby takes shallow, rapid sucks. 

B. The mother does not feel nipple pain. 

C. The baby's mouth is only partly open. 

D. Only the mother's nipple is inside the baby's mouth. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: When the baby has properly latched on to the breast, he takes deep,slow sucks, his mouth is wide open and much of the area is inside his mouth. And you're right. The mother does not feel nipple pain. 

Question 6267) 

You explain to a breastfeeding mother that breast milk is sufficient for all of the baby's nutrient needs only up to ________ . 

A. 3 months 

B. 6 months 

C. 1 year 

D. 2 year 

Answer: B 

Explanation: After 6 months, the baby's nutrient needs, especially the baby's iron requirement, can no longer be provided by mother's milk alone. 

Question 6268) 

Which biological used in Expanded Program on Immunization is stored in the freezer? 

A. DPT 

B. Tetanus toxoid 

C. Measles vaccine 

D. Hepatitis B vaccine 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Among the biological used in the Expanded Program on Immunization, measles vaccine and OPV are highly sensitive to heat, requiring storage in the freezer. 

Question 6269) 

Unused BCG should be discarded how many hours after reconstitution? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. At the end of the day Answer: B Explanation: While the unused portion of other biological in EPI may be given until the end of the day, only BCG is discarded 4 hours after reconstitution. This is why BCG immunization is scheduled only in the morning. 

Question 6270) 

A nurse is performing routine assessment of an IV site in a patient receiving both IV fluids and medications through the line. Which of the following would indicate the need for discontinuation of the IV line as the next nursing action? 

A. The patient complains of pain on movement. 

B. The area proximal to the insertion site is reddened, warm, and painful. 

C. The IV solution is infusing too slowly, particularly when the limb is elevated. 

D. A hematoma is visible in the area of the IV insertion site. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Rationale is First sign of phlebitis is pain along with IV cannula insertion site and redness over the area. The temperature of inflamed site is different from core body temperature. With these signs VIP(visual infusion phlebitis) score 2 is documented. At this score action required is respite of the IV cannula

23 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 

Question 6231) 

An opening of surgical wound edges is called : 

A. Wound evisceration 

B. Wound rupture 

C. Wound approximation 

D. Wound dehiscence 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Wound dehiscence is a surgical complication in which a wound ruptures along a surgical incision. It may be due to too tight suturing or loose improper suturing, sneezing, and coughing.-> Wound evisceration : surgical incision opens (dehiscence) and the abdominal organs protrude or come out of the incision. 

Question 6232) 

Severe generalized edema is called : 

A. Myxedema 

B. Pitting edema 

C. Anasarca 

D. Dependent edema 

Answer: C 

Explanation: 

When Edema is massive and generalized, it is called anasarca. It is caused by a variety of clinical conditions like heart failure, renal failure, liver failure or problems with the lymphatic system. -> The swelling mainly caused by abnormal retention of body fluids in extracellular space and body tissues. Due to this, Anasarca is also known as dropsy, massive edema or generalized edema. In Anasarca, the inflammation is widespread throughout the whole body. 

Question 6233) 

The classical substances that increasing the sensitivity of pain receptors by enhancing the pain provoking effects of bradykinin is : 

A. Nociceptor 

B. Endorphins 

C. Encephalin 

D. Prostaglandin 

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

High level of Prostaglandins are produced in response to injury or infection and cause inflammation, which is associated with the symptoms of redness, swelling, pain and fever. This is an important part of the body normal healing process. In contrast, Endorphins causes analgesic effect. 

Question 6234) 

The inflammatory/exudative phase of wound healing will last for : 

A. 1 year 

B. 1 - 4 days 

C. 21 days to a month 

D. 5 - 20 days 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The inflammatory/exudative phase of wound healing is form onset of wound to day 4. Healing actions in this stage include Clot formation to arrest bleeding, migration of inflammatory cells to the site of wound, neutralization of bacteria by macrophages and WBC and secretion of growth factors and cytokines. 

Question 6235) 

What is the most appropriate nursing intervention while treating a laceration ? 

A. Monitor blood pressure 

B. Elevate the body part 

C. Apply pressure dressing and heat 

D. Apply pressure dressing and ice pack 

Answer: D 

Explanation: For the management of Laceration, apply direct pressure over the wound to stop bleeding and apply ice on the wound every 15 to 20 mins. Ice helps prevent tissue damage and decreases swelling and pain. 

Question 6236) 

All of the following are organs of the lymphatic system Except? 

A. Tonsils 

B. Thymus 

C. Spleen 

D. Pancreas 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Lymphatic system is a network of very small tubes that drain lymphs fluids from all over the body. The major parts of lymph tissue are located in bone marrow, spleen, thymus, lymph nodes and tonsils. 

Question 6237) Immediate treatment of Anaphylaxis is : 

A. Adrenaline 

B. Benzylpenicillin 

C. Hydrocortisone 

D. Atropine 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Adrenaline or epinephrine is the immediate treatment of anaphylaxis. It will stimulate the alpha adrenoceptors and thereby it increase peripheral vascular resistance that leads to the improvement of blood pressure, reversing of peripheral vasodilation, coronary perfusion and it decreases angioedema. 

Question 6238) The nurse is caring for a child who is taking corticosteroids for systemic lupus erythematosus. The nurse carefully Monitors child's condition because the nurse is aware that corticosteroids can have what major action ? 

A. They increase liver enzymes. 

B. They can mask signs of infection. 

C. They cause bone marrow suppression. 

D. They decrease renal function. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Corticosteroids suppress the immune system, so the immune response to infection is diminished. It may mask or hide some signs and symptoms of infection. 

Question 6239) 

A rise of an existing antibody level in response to irrelevant stimulus is called: 

A. Anaphylactic reaction 

B. Anamnestic reaction 

C. Agglutination reaction 

D. Precipitation reaction 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Anamnestic reaction, also known as booster response, is a delayed immunologic response. Exposure to antigen in a sensitized individual results in massive production of existing antibody. Agglutination reaction is the process that occurs if an antigen is mixed with corresponding antibody. Anaphylactic reaction are life threatening reactions which exhibits symptoms such as generalized itching and hives, swelling, wheezing and difficulty breathing, fainting, and /or other allergy symptoms. Precipitation reaction refers to the formation of an insoluble salt when two solutions containing soluble salts are combined. 

Question 6240) 

Which of the following is a priority in planning care for a client with a diagnosis of immune deficiency ? 

A. Providing emotional support to decrease anxiety. 

B. Identifying factors that decreased the immune function. 

C. Encouraging discussion about lifestyle changes 

D. Protecting the client from infection. 

Answer: D Explanation: Immunodeficiency is state of diminished or absence of immune response that increases susceptibility to infection. Protecting the client from the infection is the priority while planning the care of patient with compromised immunity. 

Question 6241) 

The aim of immunosuppressive therapy is to : 

A. Stimulate the antibody production against foreign antigens. 

B. Suppress the production of antibodies against foreign antigens 

C. Promote phagocytosis 

D. All of the above 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The purpose of immunosuppressive therapy is to reduce the immune response to foreign antigens (infections) by supporting the production of antibodies against it. 

Question 6242) Which of the following diagnostic test is consider as a gold standard for confirmation of HIV infection? 

A. ELISA test 

B. Tri-dot test 

C. Western blot test 

D. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR test) 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Western blot is often used as a follow up test to confirm the presence of an antibody of HIV virus. This test is considered to be the gold standard for confirmation of HIV infection. 

Question 6243) 

Which of the following is an indicator of AIDS ? 

A. CD4 count lower than 1000 cells/mm3 

B. CD4 count lower than 600 cells/mm3 

C. CD4 count lower than 400 cells/mm3 

D. CD4 count less than 200 cells/mm3 

Answer: D 

Explanation: According to the CDC disease staging system, the definition of AIDS includes all HIV infected individuals with CD4 counts of <200 cells/uI as well as those with certain HIV related conditions and symptoms. 

Question 6244) 

The clinical symptoms of wasting syndrome is AIDS include : 

A. Involuntary weight loss 

B. Chronic diarrhea 

C. Protein energy malnutrition 

D. Esophageal candidiasis A. A,B,C B. B,C,D C. A,B,D D. A,B,C,D 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The symptoms of wasting syndrome in AIDS includes involuntary weight loss, diarrhea for at least a month, protein energy malnutrition, extreme weakness and fever that's not related to infection. Esophageal candidiasis is an opportunistic infection of esophagus by candida albicans. 

Question 6245) Which is the most common cancer associated with AIDS? 

A. Leukemia 

B. Adenocarcinoma 

C. Osteosarcoma 

D. Kaposi's sarcoma 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Kaposi's sarcoma is one of the first conditions recognized as an opportunistic sequela of HIV infection and remain the most common AIDS associated neoplasm. Non- Hodgkin lymphoma is the second most common AIDS related cancer. 

Question 6246) Winging of scapula is caused due to injury to which of the following parts? 

A. Ulnar nerve 

B. Thoracodorsal nerve 

C. Long thoracic nerve of bell 

D. Dorsal scapular nerve 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Injury to the long thoracic nerve causes serratus anterior paralysis is the most common cause for winging of scapula. Winging of scapula is a musculoskeletal disorder characterized by the protrusion of shoulder blade or shoulder bone, from a person's back in an abnormal position. 

Question 6247) 

Muscle of thigh present in anterior aspect: 

A. Rectus femoris 

B. Hamstring 

C. Deltoid 

D. Tibialis anterior 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The muscles present in the anterior aspect of the thigh and Sartorius, Quadriceps femoris, Rectus femoris and Particulars genu. Hamstring muscles are present at the back of thigh and knee. Deltoid muscle is the muscle of the scapular region and upper limb. Tibialis anterior is the muscle of the anterior compartment of the leg. 

Question 6248) 

The elbow is ......... to the wrist. 

A. Distal 

B. Anterior 

C. Posterior 

D. Proximal 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The elbow before the wrist means it is proximal to the wrist. 

Question 6249) 

Estimate the number of pregnant women who will be given tetanus toxoid during an immunization outreach activity in a barangay with a population of about 1,500: 

A. 265 

B. 300 

C. 375 

D. 400 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Estimate the number of pregnant women, multiply the total population by 3.5%. 

Question 6250) 

You are computing the crude death rate of your municipality, with a total population of about 18,000 for last year. There were 94 deaths. Among those who died, 20 died because of diseases of the heart and 32 were aged 50 years or older. What is the crude death rate ? 

A. 4.2/1000 

B. 5.2/1000 

C. 6.3/1000 

D. 7.3/1000 

Answer: B Explanation: The compute crude death rate divide total number of deaths by total population and multiply bi 1,000.

22 - Nursing Competitive Exams QAs - NORCET, ESIC

 

Question 6211)

Nurse Ramesh is caring for a client receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells. The client started to vomit and to be nauseous. Client's blood pressure is 95/40 mm Hg from a baseline of 110/70 mm Hg. The client's temperature is 100.5 degree F orally from a baseline of 99.5 degree F orally. The nurse understand that the client may be experiencing which of the following? 

A. Circulatory overload. 

B. Delayed transfusion reaction. 

C. Hypocalcemia. 

D. Septicemia. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Septicemia happens with the transfusion of blood that is contaminated with microorganisms. Assessment includes rapid onset of high fever and chills, hypotension, nausea, diarrhea, vomiting and shock. 

Question 6212) 

Packed red blood cells have been prescribed for a client with low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. The takes the client's temperature before hanging the blood transfusion and records 100.8 F. Which action should the nurse take? 

A. Give an antipyretic and begin the transfusion. 

B. Proceed with the transfusion. 

C. Administer an antihistamine and begin the transfusion. 

D. Delay hanging the blood and inform the physician. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: If the client has a temperature higher than 100 F. The unit blood should be hung and delayed until the physician is notified and has the opportunity to give further order. Options A and C are incorrect since the administration of the medicine will need the physician's prescription. Option B: The decision to administer the blood is not within the scope of nurse practice. 

Question 6213) 

A nurse is caring for a client requiring surgery and is ordered to have a standby blood secured if in case a blood transfusion is needed during or after the procedure. The nurse suggest to the client to do which of the following to lessen the risk of possible transfusion reaction? 

A. Request that any donated blood be screened twice by the blood bank. 

B. Take iron supplement prior the surgery and eat green leafy vegetables. 

C. Do an autologous blood donation. 

D. Have a family member donate their own blood. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: A donation of the own blood is autologous. Doing this will prevent the risk of transfusion reaction. 

Question 6214) 

A client is receiving transfusion of one unit of cryoprecipitate. The nurse will review which of the following laboratory studies to assess the effectiveness of the therapy? 

A. Serum electrolytes. 

B. White blood cell count. 

C. Coagulation studies. 

D. Hematocrit count. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The evaluation of an effective response of a cryoprecipitate transfusion is assessed by monitoring coagulation studies and fibrinogen levels. 

Question 6215) 

Which of the following country is ready to register the first vaccine of Coronavirus on August 12 ? 

A. China 

B. Nepal 

C. Russia 

D. Japan 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Russia is ready to register the first vaccine of the coronavirus on August 12, Russia's Deputy Health Minister Oleg Gridnev made this announcement. This vaccine has been prepare under the joint aegis of Gamalaya Research Institute and the Ministry of Defence of Russia. 

Question 6216) 

The Indian Food Safety and Standards Authority (FSSAI) recently announced that the sale of junk food and unhealthy food should be banned within how many meters of schools and educational institutions? 

A. 50 meters 

B. 150 m 

C. 200 meters 

D. 100 meters 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) CEO Arun Singhal has banned the sale of junk food and unhealthy foods in schools and other educational institutions. Also, the FSSAI has banned the sale and advertisement of unhealthy food items within a 50 meter radius of school campuses. This step has been taken to ensure safety and nutritious food for school children. 

Question 6217) 

Which country's Prime minister Hassan Diab has recently announced his resignation? 

A. Lebanon 

B. Iran 

C. Iraq 

D. Japan 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Prime Minister Hassan Diab has announced his resignation after succumbing to the demands of the people after a powerful blast in the Lebanese capital Beirut. Lebanese President Michel Aoun has accepted the resignation of the entire government, including the Prime minister. However, the President has asked Hassan Diab to continue in office till the formation of a new government. People in Lebanon are blaming negligence and mismanagement for the blast. 

Question 6218) 

According to Prime minister Narendra Modi, there is a plan to construct a transshipment port in Great Nicobar Island at a cost of how many crores? 

A. 20,000 crores 

B. 10,000 crores 

C. 15,000 crores 

D. 12,000crores 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The Prime Minister said that Andaman and Nicobar is going to develop into a major center for port development activities in the coming time. The region is located at a much competitive distance compared to many transhipment ports in the world. Once this port is ready, big ships will also be able to stay here. This will increase India's share in maritime trade and will provide new employment opportunities to the youth. 

Question 6219) 

Recently which project for Andaman and Nicobar Island has been inaugurated by the Indian Prime Minister? 

A. Submarine cable connectivity project 

B. Hirakud Dam Project 

C. Pochampad Project 

D. Malaprabha Project 

Answer: A 

Explanation: According to the Prime Minister, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, due to its strategic importance,is going to develop as a maritime and startup hub and for this the government has highlighted such development initiatives. It will connect Port Blair to Swaraj Island. Little Andaman, Car Nicobar, Kamorata, Great Nicobar, Long Island and Rangat. This initiative will also promote tourism in these areas, which will also increase employment generation. 

Question 6220) 

Which state government announced the launch of Indira Van Mitan Yojana ? 

A. Bihar 

B. Punjab 

C. Chhattisgarh 

D. Rajasthan 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Chhattisgarh Chief Minister Bhupesh Baghel announced the launch of Indira Van Mittan Yojana on the eve of the International Day of Indigenous People. This is an initiative to support the forest dwellers of Chhattisgarh and achieve self sufficiency. The objective of this scheme is to provide self employment opportunities to 19 lakh families of scheduled areas of Chhattisgarh. The plan is to encourage the planting of fruit bearing trees and medicinal plants.